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Exam (elaborations)

ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026: High-Yield Questions and Detailed Rationales

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A nurse is completing an admission assessment for a client who has narcissistic personality disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect? A. Suspicious of others B. Ritualistic behavior C. Preoccupied with aging D. Exhibits separation anxiety RATIONALE: Clients with narcissistic personality disorder often focus on appearance, aging, and self-image. Suspiciousness is more associated with paranoid personality disorder, ritualistic behaviors with obsessive-compulsive disorder, and separation anxiety is typical in anxiety disorders, not narcissistic personality disorder. A nurse is planning care for a client who has bipolar disorder and is experiencing mania. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan? A. Place the client in seclusion when he exhibits signs of anxiety. B. Encourage the client to spend time in the dayroom. C. Encourage the client to take frequent rest periods. D. Withdraw the client's TV privileges if he does not attend group therapy. RATIONALE: Clients experiencing mania have high energy and need frequent rest periods to prevent exhaustion. Seclusion and punitive measures are not therapeutic, and encouraging social interaction may increase overstimulation. A nurse is preparing to feed a newly admitted client who has dysphagia. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? A. Talk with the client during her feeding. B. Discourage the client from coughing during feedings. C. Sit at or below the client's eye level during feedings. D. Instruct the client to lift her chin when swallowing RATIONALE: Sitting at or below the client's eye level allows for better observation and support during feeding, reducing the risk of aspiration. Talking during feeding or discouraging coughing increases aspiration risk. Chin-tuck technique (not lift) is typically used to facilitate safe swallowing. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has hyperthermia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Cover the adolescent with a thermal blanket. B. Initiate seizure precautions. C. Submerge the adolescent's feet in ice water. D. Administer oral acetaminophen RATIONALE: Hyperthermia can precipitate seizures; seizure precautions are necessary. Covering with a thermal blanket or submerging feet in ice water would worsen hyperthermia. Acetaminophen may be ineffective in heat-related hyperthermia, which is not fever. A newly licensed nurse working at an HIV clinic is reviewing the responsibilities of her position at the clinic. Which of the following tasks should the nurse identify as tertiary prevention? A. Using an electronic messaging system to remind clients when to take medications B. Helping clients understand health screenings covered by their insurance plans C. Providing clients with information about the benefits of exercise D. Educating clients about contraindications to specific immunizations RATIONALE: Tertiary prevention focuses on preventing complications and optimizing quality of life in clients with existing disease. Medication adherence reminders prevent disease progression. Health screenings, exercise promotion, and immunizations are primary or secondary prevention. A nurse is preparing to obtain a health history from a client who is on bedrest. Which of the following positions should the nurse take to place the client at ease? A. Sit on the bed next to the client. B. Sit in a chair next to the bed. C. Stand at the side of the bed. D. Stand at the foot of the bed. RATIONALE: Sitting in a chair next to the bed provides a comfortable, non-intimidating environment, promoting communication. Standing or sitting on the bed can be perceived as authoritarian or intrusive. A nurse is caring for a client who is in a coma and is scheduled for a surgical procedure. Which of the following actions should the nurse take? A. Determine if the client's health care surrogate is aware of the risks and benefits of the procedure. B. Ensure that the client's family supports the provider's decision for surgery. C. Determine if the procedure is medically necessary for the client. D. Send the unsigned informed consent form to the facility's risk manager. RATIONALE: The health care surrogate is legally authorized to provide informed consent for a patient who cannot. Family support or simply sending forms does not fulfill legal consent requirements. A nurse is preparing an in-service for a group of nurses about malpractice issues in nursing. Which of the following examples should the nurse include in the teaching as an example of malpractice? A. Leaving a nasogastric tube clamped after administering oral medication B. Placing a yellow bracelet on a client who is at risk for falls C. Administering potassium via IV bolus D. Documenting communication with a provider in the progress notes of the client's medical record RATIONALE: Administering potassium via IV bolus can cause fatal cardiac arrhythmias and is considered negligent, meeting the definition of malpractice. The other options are standard safety procedures or documentation practices. A nurse is performing postmortem care for a recently deceased client prior to the client's family visit. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take? A. Hold the client's eyes shut for a few seconds. B. Cross the client's arms across their chest. C. Remove the client's dentures from their mouth. D. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position. RATIONALE: Holding the eyes shut helps provide a natural appearance for the family. Crossing arms, removing dentures, or elevating the head is not routinely necessary and may cause distress or unnecessary handling. A case manager is meeting with a client who asks about using alternative therapies to manage her rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following statements should the nurse make? A. "I'm sure you can find alternative remedies through an online support group." B. "We can review some information to help you select a safe alternative practitioner." C. "Feel free to try whatever therapies that fit within your personal belief system." D. "If there are therapies available to you, your provider will tell you about them." RATIONALE: The nurse should provide evidence-based guidance and ensure safety when clients consider alternative therapies. Encouraging uncontrolled use or relying solely on online resources is unsafe. A nurse is assessing a client who has an abdominal incision. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider? A. Mild swelling under the sutures near the incisional line B. Pink-tinged coloration on the incisional line C. Crusting of exudate on the incisional line D. Partial separation of the upper part of the incisional line RATIONALE: Partial dehiscence is a serious complication that requires immediate provider notification. Mild swelling, pink coloration, or minor crusting are expected during normal healing. A nurse is providing an in-service about client evacuation during a fire. Which of the following clients should the nurse instruct the staff to evacuate first? A. A client who has a fracture and is in balanced suspension traction. B. A client who is bedridden and wears a hearing aid C. A client who uses a wheelchair and is confused D. A client who is ambulatory and receiving oxygen RATIONALE: Clients in traction are least mobile and most at risk during emergencies, so they must be evacuated first. Ambulatory or semi-mobile clients can be moved after immobile or high-risk patients.

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Number of pages
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2025/2026
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ProfAmelia - 2026



ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor 2026:
Essential Topics and Rationales for
Mastery
A nurse is caring for a client who is in active labor and notes the fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline
is 100/min for the past 15 minutes. Which of the following conditions is a possible cause of fetal
bradycardia? A. Maternal fever
B. Fetal anemia
C. Maternal hypoglycemia
D. Chorioamnionitis

RATIONALE: Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased fetal glucose availability, resulting in
fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever and chorioamnionitis typically cause fetal tachycardia, while
fetal anemia may cause variable decelerations but not a sustained baseline bradycardia.



A nurse is assessing a school-age child who has a urinary tract infection. Which of the following
findings should the nurse expect?
A. Periorbital edema
B. Decreased frequency of urination
C. Enuresis
D. Diarrhea

RATIONALE: Enuresis (bedwetting) can be a sign of a urinary tract infection in children.
Periorbital edema is more associated with kidney disease, decreased urination is not typical in
UTI, and diarrhea is not a common symptom.



A charge nurse is assisting with emergency response planning following an external disaster.
Which current client should be recommended for early discharge?
A. A client with COPD and RR 44/min
B. A client with cancer with a sealed implant for radiation therapy
C. A client receiving heparin for DVT
D. A client 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty
RATIONALE: A stable postoperative client with minimal complications can be discharged early to
make room for critical admissions. Clients with respiratory distress, cancer therapy implants, or
anticoagulation therapy are higher risk and should remain hospitalized.


ProfAmelia - 2026

,ProfAmelia - 2026



A nurse is preparing to administer dopamine hydrochloride 4 mcg/kg/min via continuous
infusion. The client weighs 80 kg. Available is 800 mg in 250 mL. How many mL/hr should
the nurse set the IV to deliver? 6 mL/hr

RATIONALE: Correct calculation ensures accurate drug delivery. Other rates could lead to
underdosing or overdosing, potentially causing hypotension or tachycardia.



A nurse is providing teaching to parents about newborn genetic screening. Which statement
should the nurse include?
A. "This test should be performed after your baby is 24 hours old."
B. "A nurse will draw blood from your baby's inner elbow."
C. "Your baby will be given 2 ounces of water to drink prior to the test."
D. "This test will be repeated when your baby is 2 months old."

RATIONALE: Newborn genetic screening is recommended after 24 hours to allow sufficient
metabolic activity for accurate results. Blood is drawn from the heel, not the inner elbow, water
is not given, and the test is not typically repeated at 2 months unless indicated.



A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new ascending colostomy. Which
statement indicates understanding?
A. "My stool will become fully formed within 3 weeks"
B. "My skin will need to be cleaned with alcohol before I apply a new pouch"
C. "I should avoid eating popcorn and fresh pineapple"
D. "I should expect bruising around the stoma"

RATIONALE: Certain foods like popcorn and pineapple can cause blockage or irritation at the
stoma site. Stool consistency will vary and alcohol can damage skin; bruising is not expected
around a healthy stoma.



A nurse is admitting a client post-stroke with facial drooping, drooling, and hoarseness. What is
the priority action?

A. Refer to a speech-language pathologist
B. Monitor prealbumin levels
C. Measure weight




ProfAmelia - 2026

,ProfAmelia - 2026


D. Place the client on NPO status

RATIONALE: Drooling and facial droop indicate dysphagia, putting the client at risk for
aspiration. Placing the client NPO prevents aspiration until a swallowing assessment is
completed. Other actions are important but not immediately lifesaving.



A nurse is teaching a client with heart failure and new prescription for furosemide. Which
statement is correct?
A. "Taking furosemide can cause your potassium levels to be high"
B. "Eat foods that are high in sodium"
C. "Rise slowly when getting out of bed"
D. "Taking furosemide can cause you to be overhydrated"

RATIONALE: Furosemide is a diuretic that can cause orthostatic hypotension; clients should rise
slowly. It can cause hypokalemia, not hyperkalemia. High-sodium foods should be limited, and
furosemide causes fluid loss, not overhydration.

A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. The client
reports nausea and vomiting. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Encourage the client to ambulate
B. Offer a high-protein snack
C. Assess the client’s bowel sounds
D. Administer a stool softener

RATIONALE: Assessing bowel sounds is the first step to determine if the gastrointestinal system
is functioning before implementing interventions. Ambulation, snacks, and stool softeners are
secondary until GI status is confirmed.



A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for morphine sulfate 4 mg IV every 4 hours as
needed for pain. The client reports a pain level of 8/10. The nurse should:
A. Administer morphine sulfate 4 mg IV now
B. Hold the medication until the client’s next scheduled dose
C. Notify the provider before giving the dose
D. Offer non-pharmacologic pain management only

RATIONALE: Morphine is indicated for moderate to severe pain and should be administered per
prescription. Holding or delaying may increase patient discomfort; non-pharmacologic measures
can be adjuncts but are insufficient alone.



ProfAmelia - 2026

, ProfAmelia - 2026



A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which action is the priority?
A. Prime the IV tubing with 0.9% sodium chloride
B. Obtain baseline vital signs
C. Verify the provider’s prescription
D. Verify the client’s blood type and crossmatch with another nurse

RATIONALE: Correct blood verification is critical to prevent hemolytic reactions, which can be
life-threatening. Other actions are important but secondary to ensuring compatibility.



A nurse is teaching a client with asthma about using a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which
statement indicates correct understanding?
A. "I should inhale quickly and forcefully while pressing the canister"
B. "I should rinse my mouth after every use of a bronchodilator"
C. "I should shake the inhaler before each use"
D. "I should use my inhaler only when symptoms occur"

RATIONALE: Shaking the inhaler ensures proper medication delivery. Rapid forceful inhalation is
incorrect; rinsing is mainly needed after steroid inhalers, and rescue inhalers are used as
needed, but maintenance inhalers require scheduled use.



A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which finding
requires immediate intervention?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Fever and chills
C. Mild nausea
D. Dry skin

RATIONALE: Fever and chills may indicate a catheter-related bloodstream infection, which is an
emergency. Hyperglycemia, nausea, and dry skin are common complications but not
immediately life-threatening.


A nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease who is experiencing hyperkalemia.
Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
A. Encourage the client to eat a low-potassium diet
B. Administer sodium polystyrene sulfonate



ProfAmelia - 2026
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