NUR 355 Exam 2 Newest Actual Exam Preparation With Complete Questions And
Correct Answers With Rationales | Already Graded A+||Brand New Version!!
Question 1
A patient presents to the emergency department with a sharp, burning sensation on the surface of
their skin following a minor abrasion. The nurse recognizes this type of pain as:
A) Visceral pain
B) Neuropathic pain
C) Cutaneous pain
D) Referred pain
E) Psychosomatic pain
Correct Answer: C) cutaneous pain.
Rationale: Cutaneous pain is derived from the skin surface and subcutaneous tissues.
Because these areas are highly innervated with sensory receptors, the pain is typically
described as sharp or burning and is easily localized by the patient. In contrast, visceral
pain comes from internal organs and is usually dull or aching.
Question 2
A patient complaining of "pins and needles" and intense shooting pain below the level of a spinal
cord injury is likely experiencing which type of pain?
A) Somatic pain
B) Neuropathic pain
C) Visceral pain
D) Phantom pain
E) Cutaneous pain
Correct Answer: B) neuropathic pain.
Rationale: Neuropathic pain arises from abnormal or damaged pain nerves. Common
descriptors include "shooting," "burning," or "pins and needles." Typical examples
include diabetic neuropathy and pain resulting from spinal cord injuries where the nerve
pathways themselves are the source of the painful stimuli.
Question 3
Which characteristic is most associated with visceral pain?
, 2
A) Sharp and well-localized
B) Superficial and burning
C) Originating from interior organs and often accompanied by nausea
D) Felt in a part of the body other than its source
E) Brief and relieved by simple repositioning
Correct Answer: C) Originating from interior organs and often accompanied by nausea
Rationale: Visceral pain originates from internal organs. Because these organs have fewer
sensory receptors than the skin, the pain is often aching and poorly localized. It frequently
triggers autonomic responses, such as nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis (sweating), and pallor.
Question 4
A patient has a neutrophil count of 1,200 cells/mm³. What is the most significant clinical
implication of this finding?
A) The patient is at high risk for hemorrhage
B) The patient has a high resistance to viral infections
C) The patient is at high risk for infection by opportunistic pathogens
D) The patient is experiencing a severe allergic reaction
E) The patient has an overactive immune system
Correct Answer: C) HIGH RISK FOR INFECTION BY OPPORTUNISTIC PATHOGENS
Rationale: Neutrophils are the "first responders" to bacterial and viral infections. A normal
range is 2,500 to 8,000 cells/mm³. A low count (neutropenia) indicates that the body's
primary defense mechanism is compromised, leaving the patient vulnerable to infections
that a healthy immune system would easily fight off.
Question 5
What is the normal range for a total white blood cell (leukocyte) count?
A) 1,000 - 4,000 cells/mm³
B) 5,000 - 10,000 cells/mm³
C) 15,000 - 20,000 cells/mm³
D) 2,500 - 8,000 cells/mm³
E) 100,000 - 200,000 cells/mm³
, 3
Correct Answer: B) 5,000-10,000
Rationale: The normal range for leukocytes is 5,000 to 10,000 cells/mm³. A count above this
range is termed leukocytosis (often indicating infection or inflammation), while a count
below this range is leucopenia (indicating immune suppression).
Question 6
A nurse is reviewing the chart of a patient with suspected urosepsis. Which set of lab values is
most consistent with this diagnosis?
A) Negative urine culture and low serum lactate
B) Positive blood culture, high serum lactate, and high C-reactive protein
C) High WBC count, low CRP, and low serum lactate
D) Normal creatinine, positive urine culture, and low heart rate
E) High neutrophils and low blood pressure only
Correct Answer: B) positive blood culture, high serum lactate, and high C-reactive protein
Rationale: Urosepsis is a systemic infection originating in the urinary tract. Key markers
include positive cultures (confirming the pathogen), high serum lactate (indicating tissue
hypoxia/hypoperfusion), and high C-reactive protein (indicating systemic inflammation).
WBCs may be high (leukocytosis) or dangerously low (leucopenia) in severe sepsis.
Question 7
During an assessment, the nurse notes white, chalky aggregates of uric acid crystals in the soft
tissues and joints of a patient with chronic gout. These are known as:
A) Heberden's nodes
B) Bouchard's nodes
C) Tophi
D) Osteophytes
E) Rheumatoid nodules
Correct Answer: C) tophi
Rationale: Tophi are deposits of monosodium urate crystals that occur in patients with
chronic, poorly controlled gout. They appear as white or yellowish chalky lumps and can
, 4
cause joint destruction and fibrosis. Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes are associated with
osteoarthritis.
Question 8
Why are mental status changes, such as confusion and delirium, especially concerning in HIV-
positive patients?
A) They indicate the patient is not taking their vitamins
B) HIV can trigger inflammation that damages the brain and increases the risk for CNS
infections/malignancies
C) It is a normal side effect of all antiviral medications
D) It indicates the patient is entering the latent phase of the virus
E) It suggests the patient is dehydrated from excessive exercise
Correct Answer: B) HIV can trigger inflammation that damages the brain and spinal chord
Rationale: In HIV-positive patients, confusion can signal HIV-associated neurocognitive
disorder (HAND), or more dangerously, an opportunistic infection of the Central Nervous
System (like toxoplasmosis or cryptococcal meningitis) or a malignancy (like CNS
lymphoma). It also increases the suspicion for sepsis.
Question 9
A nurse is assessing a patient with advanced dementia for pain. Which behavior is a reliable
indicator that the patient is in pain?
A) Speaking clearly about the pain location
B) Sleeping soundly for 10 hours straight
C) Constant pacing, moaning, and a furrowed brow
D) Following all nursing instructions without hesitation
E) A sudden increase in appetite
Correct Answer: C) Constant pacing, moving or unwillingness to sit down. Moaning, crying,
sighing...
Rationale: Patients with advanced dementia often lose the ability to verbalize pain. Nurses
must rely on non-verbal cues. Restlessness (pacing), vocalizations (moaning/crying), and
Correct Answers With Rationales | Already Graded A+||Brand New Version!!
Question 1
A patient presents to the emergency department with a sharp, burning sensation on the surface of
their skin following a minor abrasion. The nurse recognizes this type of pain as:
A) Visceral pain
B) Neuropathic pain
C) Cutaneous pain
D) Referred pain
E) Psychosomatic pain
Correct Answer: C) cutaneous pain.
Rationale: Cutaneous pain is derived from the skin surface and subcutaneous tissues.
Because these areas are highly innervated with sensory receptors, the pain is typically
described as sharp or burning and is easily localized by the patient. In contrast, visceral
pain comes from internal organs and is usually dull or aching.
Question 2
A patient complaining of "pins and needles" and intense shooting pain below the level of a spinal
cord injury is likely experiencing which type of pain?
A) Somatic pain
B) Neuropathic pain
C) Visceral pain
D) Phantom pain
E) Cutaneous pain
Correct Answer: B) neuropathic pain.
Rationale: Neuropathic pain arises from abnormal or damaged pain nerves. Common
descriptors include "shooting," "burning," or "pins and needles." Typical examples
include diabetic neuropathy and pain resulting from spinal cord injuries where the nerve
pathways themselves are the source of the painful stimuli.
Question 3
Which characteristic is most associated with visceral pain?
, 2
A) Sharp and well-localized
B) Superficial and burning
C) Originating from interior organs and often accompanied by nausea
D) Felt in a part of the body other than its source
E) Brief and relieved by simple repositioning
Correct Answer: C) Originating from interior organs and often accompanied by nausea
Rationale: Visceral pain originates from internal organs. Because these organs have fewer
sensory receptors than the skin, the pain is often aching and poorly localized. It frequently
triggers autonomic responses, such as nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis (sweating), and pallor.
Question 4
A patient has a neutrophil count of 1,200 cells/mm³. What is the most significant clinical
implication of this finding?
A) The patient is at high risk for hemorrhage
B) The patient has a high resistance to viral infections
C) The patient is at high risk for infection by opportunistic pathogens
D) The patient is experiencing a severe allergic reaction
E) The patient has an overactive immune system
Correct Answer: C) HIGH RISK FOR INFECTION BY OPPORTUNISTIC PATHOGENS
Rationale: Neutrophils are the "first responders" to bacterial and viral infections. A normal
range is 2,500 to 8,000 cells/mm³. A low count (neutropenia) indicates that the body's
primary defense mechanism is compromised, leaving the patient vulnerable to infections
that a healthy immune system would easily fight off.
Question 5
What is the normal range for a total white blood cell (leukocyte) count?
A) 1,000 - 4,000 cells/mm³
B) 5,000 - 10,000 cells/mm³
C) 15,000 - 20,000 cells/mm³
D) 2,500 - 8,000 cells/mm³
E) 100,000 - 200,000 cells/mm³
, 3
Correct Answer: B) 5,000-10,000
Rationale: The normal range for leukocytes is 5,000 to 10,000 cells/mm³. A count above this
range is termed leukocytosis (often indicating infection or inflammation), while a count
below this range is leucopenia (indicating immune suppression).
Question 6
A nurse is reviewing the chart of a patient with suspected urosepsis. Which set of lab values is
most consistent with this diagnosis?
A) Negative urine culture and low serum lactate
B) Positive blood culture, high serum lactate, and high C-reactive protein
C) High WBC count, low CRP, and low serum lactate
D) Normal creatinine, positive urine culture, and low heart rate
E) High neutrophils and low blood pressure only
Correct Answer: B) positive blood culture, high serum lactate, and high C-reactive protein
Rationale: Urosepsis is a systemic infection originating in the urinary tract. Key markers
include positive cultures (confirming the pathogen), high serum lactate (indicating tissue
hypoxia/hypoperfusion), and high C-reactive protein (indicating systemic inflammation).
WBCs may be high (leukocytosis) or dangerously low (leucopenia) in severe sepsis.
Question 7
During an assessment, the nurse notes white, chalky aggregates of uric acid crystals in the soft
tissues and joints of a patient with chronic gout. These are known as:
A) Heberden's nodes
B) Bouchard's nodes
C) Tophi
D) Osteophytes
E) Rheumatoid nodules
Correct Answer: C) tophi
Rationale: Tophi are deposits of monosodium urate crystals that occur in patients with
chronic, poorly controlled gout. They appear as white or yellowish chalky lumps and can
, 4
cause joint destruction and fibrosis. Heberden's and Bouchard's nodes are associated with
osteoarthritis.
Question 8
Why are mental status changes, such as confusion and delirium, especially concerning in HIV-
positive patients?
A) They indicate the patient is not taking their vitamins
B) HIV can trigger inflammation that damages the brain and increases the risk for CNS
infections/malignancies
C) It is a normal side effect of all antiviral medications
D) It indicates the patient is entering the latent phase of the virus
E) It suggests the patient is dehydrated from excessive exercise
Correct Answer: B) HIV can trigger inflammation that damages the brain and spinal chord
Rationale: In HIV-positive patients, confusion can signal HIV-associated neurocognitive
disorder (HAND), or more dangerously, an opportunistic infection of the Central Nervous
System (like toxoplasmosis or cryptococcal meningitis) or a malignancy (like CNS
lymphoma). It also increases the suspicion for sepsis.
Question 9
A nurse is assessing a patient with advanced dementia for pain. Which behavior is a reliable
indicator that the patient is in pain?
A) Speaking clearly about the pain location
B) Sleeping soundly for 10 hours straight
C) Constant pacing, moaning, and a furrowed brow
D) Following all nursing instructions without hesitation
E) A sudden increase in appetite
Correct Answer: C) Constant pacing, moving or unwillingness to sit down. Moaning, crying,
sighing...
Rationale: Patients with advanced dementia often lose the ability to verbalize pain. Nurses
must rely on non-verbal cues. Restlessness (pacing), vocalizations (moaning/crying), and
