NUR 355 Exam 1 Newest Actual Exam Preparation With Complete Questions And Correct Answers With Rationales | Already Graded A+||Brand New Version!!

NUR 355 Exam 1 Newest Actual Exam Preparation With Complete Questions And
Correct Answers With Rationales | Already Graded A+||Brand New Version!!


Question 1
What does the acronym HCAHPS stand for in the context of healthcare quality and patient
experience?
A) Hospital Clinical Assessment of Health, Patients, and Safety
B) Healthcare Consumer Association of Hospitals and Provider Systems
C) Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems
D) Healthcare Clinical Audit of Hospital Providers and Surgeons
E) Home Care Assessment of Health Professionals and Staffing

Correct Answer: C) Hospital Consumer Assessment of Healthcare Providers and Systems
Rationale: HCAHPS is a standardized, publicly reported survey of patients' perspectives of
hospital care. It measures various domains including communication with nurses and
doctors, responsiveness of staff, pain management, and the cleanliness/quietness of the
environment. It is used to compare hospitals locally and nationally, and its results can
influence hospital reimbursement.

Question 2
A patient admitted for a scheduled surgery begins to experience hallucinations, seizures, and
tachycardia 48 hours post-admission. The nurse suspects ETOH withdrawal. Which of the
following best describes ETOH?
A) Ethylene Glycol
B) Ethanol (Alcohol)
C) Ethyl Chloride
D) Euthanasia agent
E) Essential Thiamine Oil

Correct Answer: B) ethanol (alcohol)
Rationale: In clinical settings, ETOH is the abbreviation for ethanol, the intoxicating agent
in liquor, wine, and beer. When a patient who consumes alcohol regularly suddenly stops
(such as during a hospital stay), they can experience life-threatening withdrawal symptoms
due to the brain's sudden lack of a central nervous system depressant.

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Question 3
Which of the following represents a complete list of symptoms associated with acute ETOH
withdrawal?
A) Bradycardia, bradypnea, and somnolence
B) Hypotension, hypothermia, and constipation
C) Hallucinations, seizures, insomnia, tachycardia, and diaphoresis
D) Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia
E) Joint pain, facial rash, and photosensitivity

Correct Answer: C) hallucinations, seizures, insomnia, tachycardia, and diaphoresis
Rationale: Alcohol withdrawal causes a state of autonomic hyperactivity. Common signs
include physical agitation, anxiety, nausea/vomiting, and sleep disturbances (insomnia).
Severe cases progress to "Delirium Tremens" (DTs), characterized by profound
tachycardia, drenching sweats (diaphoresis), vivid hallucinations, and generalized tonic-
clonic seizures.

Question 4
A nurse is assessing a patient’s visual acuity. Which cranial nerve is responsible for this
function?
A) Cranial Nerve I
B) Cranial Nerve II
C) Cranial Nerve III
) Cranial Nerve IV
E) Cranial Nerve V

Correct Answer: B) Cranial Nerve II
Rationale: Cranial Nerve II is the Optic nerve. Its primary function is sensory, carrying
visual impulses from the retina to the brain. Assessment of this nerve typically involves
testing visual acuity (using a Snellen chart) and visual fields (confrontation test).

Question 5
Which cranial nerve is responsible for controlling most eye movements, including pupillary
constriction and eyelid elevation?

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A) Cranial Nerve II
B) Cranial Nerve III
C) Cranial Nerve IV
D) Cranial Nerve VI
E) Cranial Nerve VIII

Correct Answer: B) Oculomotor- controls all eye movement except what is controlled by CN
IV and CN VI
Rationale: Cranial Nerve III (Oculomotor) is the "workhorse" of eye movement. It controls
the superior, inferior, and medial rectus muscles, as well as the inferior oblique. It also
controls the levator palpebrae superioris (lifting the eyelid) and the sphincter pupillae
(pupillary constriction).

Question 6
When a nurse asks a patient to follow a finger moving downward and inward toward the nose,
which cranial nerve is primarily being tested?
A) Cranial Nerve II
B) Cranial Nerve III
C) Cranial Nerve IV
D) Cranial Nerve VI
E) Cranial Nerve VII

Correct Answer: C) Trochlear- controls downward and inwards eye movements
Rationale: Cranial Nerve IV (Trochlear) innervates the Superior Oblique muscle. This
muscle is specifically responsible for the "down and in" movement of the eye. Difficulty
with this movement often results in vertical diplopia (double vision), especially when the
patient is looking down at their feet or walking down stairs.

Question 7
The nurse is performing a cardinal signs of gaze test. The patient is unable to move their eye
laterally (outward). Which cranial nerve is likely affected?
A) Cranial Nerve III
B) Cranial Nerve IV

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C) Cranial Nerve V
D) Cranial Nerve VI
E) Cranial Nerve X

Correct Answer: D) Abducens- controls lateral eye movements
Rationale: Cranial Nerve VI (Abducens) innervates the Lateral Rectus muscle. As the name
suggests, this nerve is responsible for the "abduction" of the eye, or moving the eye
laterally away from the midline. Failure of this nerve results in the eye being pulled
medially by opposing muscles.

Question 8
Which tool is the standard instrument used to test the function of Cranial Nerve II (Optic Nerve)?
A) Tuning Fork
B) Snellen chart
C) Reflex Hammer
D) Ophthalmoscope
E) Penlight

Correct Answer: B) Snellen chart
Rationale: The Snellen chart is used to measure distance visual acuity. The patient stands 20
feet away and reads the smallest line of letters possible. This measures the clarity of vision
produced by the Optic nerve and the brain's visual cortex.

Question 9
During a neuro-ophthalmic assessment, the nurse checks for the "6 cardinal signs of gaze" and
pupillary response (PERRLA). These tests primarily evaluate which nerve?
A) CN II
B) CN III
C) CN IV
D) CN VI
E) CN XII