16TH EDITION
• AUTHOR(S)KEVIN T. PATTON; GARY
A. THIBODEAU
TEST BANK
1
Reference
Ch. 1 — Levels of organization; Homeostasis
Question Stem
A 72-year-old patient with severe sepsis develops hypotension
and impaired oxygen delivery to tissues. Which statement best
explains how an initial cellular dysfunction can result in multi-
system hypotension?
Options
A. Widespread cellular ATP depletion leads to failure of ion
,pumps, causing vascular smooth muscle dilation and systemic
hypotension.
B. Cellular injury stimulates localized immune responses that
remain confined to organs, preserving systemic vascular tone.
C. Cellular edema increases tissue perfusion, increasing
systemic vascular resistance and causing hypotension.
D. Cell membrane hyperpolarization increases contractility of
cardiac muscle, reducing cardiac output and causing
hypotension.
Correct Answer
A
Rationales
Correct (A): In sepsis, mitochondrial dysfunction and ATP
depletion impair Na⁺/K⁺-ATPase and other pumps, altering ion
gradients. Vascular smooth muscle fails to maintain tone,
promoting vasodilation and systemic hypotension. This links
cell-level energy failure to organ/system hemodynamic collapse,
informing nursing priorities like monitoring perfusion and
supporting MAP.
Incorrect (B): Immune responses in sepsis become systemic
rather than remaining localized; localized responses alone
would not explain systemic hypotension.
Incorrect (C): Cellular edema reduces effective capillary
perfusion and increases interstitial pressure; it does not
improve tissue perfusion or raise systemic vascular resistance in
a way that explains hypotension.
,Incorrect (D): Hyperpolarization of cell membranes generally
reduces excitability; increased cardiac contractility from
hyperpolarization is physiologically inconsistent.
Teaching Point
Cellular ATP failure → pump dysfunction → loss of vascular tone
→ systemic hypotension.
Citation
Patton, K. T., & Thibodeau, G. A. (2020). Structure & function of
the body (16th ed.). Ch. 1.
2
Reference
Ch. 1 — Anatomical position; Anatomical directions; Clinical
documentation
Question Stem
A nurse documents a wound described as “lateral to the tibia
and distal to the patella.” In the supine patient, which physical
location best matches this documentation?
Options
A. The wound is on the outer (fibular) side of the lower leg,
below the kneecap.
B. The wound is on the inner (tibial) side of the thigh, above the
kneecap.
C. The wound is on the anterior aspect of the ankle, proximal to
, the patella.
D. The wound is on the medial foot, distal to the toes.
Correct Answer
A
Rationales
Correct (A): “Lateral to the tibia” indicates toward the fibular
(outer) side of the leg; “distal to the patella” means below the
kneecap. Combined, the described site is the outer lower leg
below the knee—important for wound care planning and
neurovascular checks.
Incorrect (B): Inner (medial) thigh and above the kneecap
contradict “lateral” and “distal to the patella.”
Incorrect (C): Anterior ankle is distal to the knee but is not
lateral to the tibia in the described anatomical sense.
Incorrect (D): The medial foot is not lateral to the tibia and
“distal to the toes” is anatomically incorrect.
Teaching Point
Use anatomical position and direction terms precisely to
localize findings.
Citation
Patton, K. T., & Thibodeau, G. A. (2020). Structure & function of
the body (16th ed.). Ch. 1.
3