NR607/ NR 607 EXAM NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL
EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) ALL
ANSWERED {310 Q & A} ALREADY GRADED A+ |
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(CHAMBERLAIN)
Antonia agrees to voluntary admission for evaluation and
treatment. After searching the hospital system, the PMHNP finds
that there is not an available inpatient bed for Antonia and that a
bed may not be available for 24 hours or longer. Antonia states
that she is not willing to remain in the emergency department for
that long, and she instead wants to schedule an appointment
with her counselor for the next day. Antonia states that she is
willing to stay with her brother and his family in their home and
will give him her prescriptions so that she does not have access
to the bottles.
Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation
for Antonia?
-discharge to home with resources for crisis care and
recommendation for follow-up
-increase sertraline to 75 mg daily
-23-hour observation in the ED with Q15 minute checks
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-involuntary admission - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > discharge to home
with resources for crisis care and recommendation for follow-up
Rationale: Antonia's symptoms indicate that she might benefit
from voluntary admission; however, since there is no appropriate
inpatient bed, keeping her indefinitely in the ED for observation is
not appropriate. Antonia can be discharged to the care of her
brother with a safety plan, crisis resources, and a follow-up plan.
Art is a 52-year-old who presents to the clinic for a routine
follow-up appointment. He has a history of schizophrenia with a
lack of insight, impulsivity, and previous violent behavior. As the
interview begins, Art states that he has had homicidal ideations
toward his brother and nephew. He states that the two men have
"disrupted his thinking" by "creating a new theory of family," and
he is worried that the only solution is to kill them both. Currently,
Art is calm and cooperative with disorganized thought content
and fixed delusions; his appearance is slightly disheveled. He
denies substance use and does not appear inebriated. He denies
a specific plan to kill his brother and nephew and denies access
to firearms. He endorses that he stopped taking his medications
two weeks ago because he no longer needs them and does not
think he needs additional assistance at this time. Which of the
following is the most a - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > begin the involuntary
admission process
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Rationale: The most appropriate management strategy for Art is
to begin the involuntary admission process. Art has homicidal
ideations and a history of impulsivity and prior violence. He does
not recognize the need for treatment. Therefore, the process for
involuntary admission should be implemented. Consideration
should also be made as to whether Art's family should be notified
of his threats. Because Art is currently calm and cooperative, de-
escalation techniques are not necessary.
Mary Ellen is a 42-year-old who presents to the clinic with low
energy and "feeling down." She states she has been increasingly
fatigued for the past two months since she was laid off from her
job due to downsizing. She reports that she presented for care
because she felt "down in the dumps" as it was her sister's death
anniversary. She had thoughts about harming herself somehow
over the past few days but denied specific plans, stating,
"sometimes it just seems like it would be easier not to be here."
She has a previous history of a suicide attempt as a teenager,
after which she received several years of therapy; she has not
received mental treatment for about 20 years. She also reports
using occasional marijuana and alcohol socially; she currently
appears sober. Mary Ellen lives with her husband with whom she
states she has a poor relationship; he has not been supportive of
her mental health needs in t - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > recommend
voluntary admission
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Rationale: Mary Ellen has had suicidal thoughts, and she does not
have a plan; she has a history of suicide attempts and has a lack
of support resources. Currently, she may benefit from voluntary
admission for evaluation and treatment.
Amir is a 28-year-old who was brought to the ED by law
enforcement after his mother called 911 due to his bizarre
behaviors. When the police arrived, Amir was agitated and
wandering the street naked. He refused to follow directions and
became combative with officers when approached. He was
handcuffed and transported by a squad car. Before transfer, his
mother told police that Amir had a history of schizophrenia with
treatment nonadherence and marijuana use.
During the ride to the ED, Amir was calm and cooperative. He
was transferred to a gurney in the triage area without incident,
but after transfer to an exam room, Amir began screaming and
threatening the PMHNP and staff member. Amir tried to punch
and spit at them when they approached the bedside.
Which of the following are the most appropriate management
strategies for Amir? Select all that apply.
-begin the involuntary admission process
-use de-escalation techni - ✔✔✔ Correct Answer > -use de-escalation
techniques
-request additional staff support
-medicate with intramuscular lorazepam 0.5 mg