PARAMEDIC CERTIFICATION EXAM PRACTICE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026
Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. The primary assessment of a patient focuses on:
A. Past medical history
B. Vital signs
C. Airway, Breathing, Circulation
D. Medication history
Rationale: The primary assessment is meant to identify life-threatening
conditions, focusing first on airway, breathing, and circulation.
2. Which of the following is considered a sign of inadequate
breathing?
A. Pink skin
B. Normal respiratory rate
C. Use of accessory muscles
D. Normal SpO2
Rationale: Accessory muscle use indicates that the patient is working
harder to breathe, suggesting respiratory compromise.
3. In the case of a suspected spinal injury, how should a patient be
moved?
A. Rapid extrication
B. Log roll with spinal immobilization
C. Lift by arms only
D. Drag by feet
,Rationale: Spinal immobilization prevents further spinal cord injury
during patient movement.
4. The normal range for adult respiratory rate is:
A. 5–10 breaths per minute
B. 20–30 breaths per minute
C. 12–20 breaths per minute
D. 25–35 breaths per minute
Rationale: Adults typically breathe 12–20 times per minute under
normal conditions.
5. What is the first step in managing an airway obstruction in a
conscious adult?
A. Perform a tracheostomy
B. Encourage the patient to cough
C. Provide positive pressure ventilation
D. Perform chest compressions
Rationale: Encouraging coughing can help the patient expel the
obstruction before invasive measures are needed.
6. Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat
anaphylaxis?
A. Albuterol
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Epinephrine
D. Dopamine
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic
reactions due to its vasoconstrictive and bronchodilatory effects.
7. The most reliable method for confirming endotracheal tube
placement is:
A. Visual confirmation
B. Capnography (ETCO₂)
, C. Chest rise observation
D. Breath sounds
Rationale: Capnography provides real-time confirmation that the tube is
in the trachea, not the esophagus.
8. A patient presents with chest pain radiating to the left arm. The
first intervention should be:
A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Assess ABCs and apply oxygen
C. Prepare for defibrillation
D. Give aspirin only
Rationale: Immediate assessment of airway, breathing, and circulation
is critical before administering medications.
9. Which of the following is a contraindication for nitroglycerin?
A. Hypertension
B. Chest pain
C. Systolic BP < 90 mmHg
D. History of angina
Rationale: Nitroglycerin can cause hypotension; it should not be given if
blood pressure is already low.
10. What is the preferred route for administering epinephrine in
anaphylaxis?
A. Oral
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intramuscular (IM)
D. Intravenous (IV)
Rationale: IM injection provides rapid absorption with fewer risks than
IV administration in prehospital settings.
11. In trauma patients, the “Golden Hour” refers to:
A. First 10 minutes
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
(VERIFIED ANSWERS) PLUS RATIONALES 2026
Q&A | INSTANT DOWNLOAD PDF
1. The primary assessment of a patient focuses on:
A. Past medical history
B. Vital signs
C. Airway, Breathing, Circulation
D. Medication history
Rationale: The primary assessment is meant to identify life-threatening
conditions, focusing first on airway, breathing, and circulation.
2. Which of the following is considered a sign of inadequate
breathing?
A. Pink skin
B. Normal respiratory rate
C. Use of accessory muscles
D. Normal SpO2
Rationale: Accessory muscle use indicates that the patient is working
harder to breathe, suggesting respiratory compromise.
3. In the case of a suspected spinal injury, how should a patient be
moved?
A. Rapid extrication
B. Log roll with spinal immobilization
C. Lift by arms only
D. Drag by feet
,Rationale: Spinal immobilization prevents further spinal cord injury
during patient movement.
4. The normal range for adult respiratory rate is:
A. 5–10 breaths per minute
B. 20–30 breaths per minute
C. 12–20 breaths per minute
D. 25–35 breaths per minute
Rationale: Adults typically breathe 12–20 times per minute under
normal conditions.
5. What is the first step in managing an airway obstruction in a
conscious adult?
A. Perform a tracheostomy
B. Encourage the patient to cough
C. Provide positive pressure ventilation
D. Perform chest compressions
Rationale: Encouraging coughing can help the patient expel the
obstruction before invasive measures are needed.
6. Which of the following medications is commonly used to treat
anaphylaxis?
A. Albuterol
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Epinephrine
D. Dopamine
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for severe allergic
reactions due to its vasoconstrictive and bronchodilatory effects.
7. The most reliable method for confirming endotracheal tube
placement is:
A. Visual confirmation
B. Capnography (ETCO₂)
, C. Chest rise observation
D. Breath sounds
Rationale: Capnography provides real-time confirmation that the tube is
in the trachea, not the esophagus.
8. A patient presents with chest pain radiating to the left arm. The
first intervention should be:
A. Administer nitroglycerin
B. Assess ABCs and apply oxygen
C. Prepare for defibrillation
D. Give aspirin only
Rationale: Immediate assessment of airway, breathing, and circulation
is critical before administering medications.
9. Which of the following is a contraindication for nitroglycerin?
A. Hypertension
B. Chest pain
C. Systolic BP < 90 mmHg
D. History of angina
Rationale: Nitroglycerin can cause hypotension; it should not be given if
blood pressure is already low.
10. What is the preferred route for administering epinephrine in
anaphylaxis?
A. Oral
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intramuscular (IM)
D. Intravenous (IV)
Rationale: IM injection provides rapid absorption with fewer risks than
IV administration in prehospital settings.
11. In trauma patients, the “Golden Hour” refers to:
A. First 10 minutes
