NR 565 – ADVANCED PHARMACOLOGY FINAL
EXAM REVIEW (2025 – VERSION 2)
100 MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS
1–25: Foundations of Advanced Pharmacology
1. Which pharmacokinetic process describes drug movement from the site of administration
into the bloodstream?
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Excretion
D. Absorption
2. The primary organ responsible for drug metabolism is:
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lungs
D. Skin
3. A drug with a high first-pass effect will:
A. Have increased bioavailability
B. Require oral doses to be higher than IV doses
C. Be unaffected by liver disease
D. Avoid hepatic metabolism
4. Half-life refers to:
A. Time for drug effect to reach maximum
B. Time for plasma concentration to fall by 50%
C. Time for total drug elimination
D. Time between doses
5. CYP450 induction causes:
A. Drug accumulation
B. Increased drug metabolism
C. Decreased metabolism
D. Toxicity
,6. Which receptor type is the target of most hormones and neurotransmitters?
A. Ion channels
B. G-protein-coupled receptors
C. Enzymes
D. Nuclear receptors
7. Agonists:
A. Block receptors
B. Produce maximal receptor activity
C. Produce partial activity
D. Have no intrinsic activity
8. An elderly patient requires lower drug doses mainly due to:
A. Faster metabolism
B. Increased renal clearance
C. Reduced renal and hepatic function
D. Increased body water
9. The strongest form of drug–receptor interaction is:
A. Ionic
B. Covalent
C. Van der Waals
D. Hydrophobic
10. Drugs given sublingually avoid:
A. Absorption
B. Bioavailability
C. First-pass metabolism
D. Distribution
11. Therapeutic index is defined as:
A. ED50/LD50
B. LD50/ED50
C. Clearance × volume
D. Potency × efficacy
12. A highly protein-bound drug will:
A. Have more free active drug
B. Interact with warfarin
,C. Be excreted faster
D. Avoid adverse effects
13. Steady state is reached after approximately:
A. 1 half-life
B. 2 half-lives
C. 3 half-lives
D. 4–5 half-lives
14. Polypharmacy increases risk of:
A. Higher adherence
B. Drug–drug interactions
C. Fewer side effects
D. Lower costs
15. Lipophilic drugs tend to:
A. Cross membranes easily
B. Accumulate in water
C. Excrete faster
D. Be poorly absorbed
16. Zero-order kinetics means:
A. Constant percent per hour
B. Constant amount per hour
C. Variable rate
D. Renal elimination only
17. First-line therapy is defined as:
A. Last resort
B. Most effective and safest initial option
C. Optional therapy
D. Experimental therapy
18. Black-box warnings indicate:
A. Mild side effects
B. Serious or life-threatening risks
C. No safety issues
D. Pediatric-only concerns
19. A prodrug is:
A. Pharmacologically inactive until metabolized
, B. Active when ingested
C. Eliminated unchanged
D. Used only in renal disease
20. Drug clearance refers to:
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Volume of plasma cleared per unit time
D. Protein binding
21. A competitive antagonist:
A. Cannot be overcome
B. Binds irreversibly
C. Competes with agonist and can be overcome
D. Has intrinsic activity
22. Pharmacogenomics focuses on:
A. Diet
B. Genetics influencing drug response
C. Behavior
D. Allergies
23. Drugs with narrow therapeutic index require:
A. No monitoring
B. Frequent monitoring
C. Higher doses
D. Avoidance in all populations
24. Bioavailability refers to:
A. Drug potency
B. Fraction reaching systemic circulation
C. Binding percentage
D. Excretion rate
25. Renal impairment results in:
A. Faster clearance
B. Prolonged half-life
C. Fewer side effects
D. Less bioavailability
EXAM REVIEW (2025 – VERSION 2)
100 MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS
1–25: Foundations of Advanced Pharmacology
1. Which pharmacokinetic process describes drug movement from the site of administration
into the bloodstream?
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Excretion
D. Absorption
2. The primary organ responsible for drug metabolism is:
A. Kidney
B. Liver
C. Lungs
D. Skin
3. A drug with a high first-pass effect will:
A. Have increased bioavailability
B. Require oral doses to be higher than IV doses
C. Be unaffected by liver disease
D. Avoid hepatic metabolism
4. Half-life refers to:
A. Time for drug effect to reach maximum
B. Time for plasma concentration to fall by 50%
C. Time for total drug elimination
D. Time between doses
5. CYP450 induction causes:
A. Drug accumulation
B. Increased drug metabolism
C. Decreased metabolism
D. Toxicity
,6. Which receptor type is the target of most hormones and neurotransmitters?
A. Ion channels
B. G-protein-coupled receptors
C. Enzymes
D. Nuclear receptors
7. Agonists:
A. Block receptors
B. Produce maximal receptor activity
C. Produce partial activity
D. Have no intrinsic activity
8. An elderly patient requires lower drug doses mainly due to:
A. Faster metabolism
B. Increased renal clearance
C. Reduced renal and hepatic function
D. Increased body water
9. The strongest form of drug–receptor interaction is:
A. Ionic
B. Covalent
C. Van der Waals
D. Hydrophobic
10. Drugs given sublingually avoid:
A. Absorption
B. Bioavailability
C. First-pass metabolism
D. Distribution
11. Therapeutic index is defined as:
A. ED50/LD50
B. LD50/ED50
C. Clearance × volume
D. Potency × efficacy
12. A highly protein-bound drug will:
A. Have more free active drug
B. Interact with warfarin
,C. Be excreted faster
D. Avoid adverse effects
13. Steady state is reached after approximately:
A. 1 half-life
B. 2 half-lives
C. 3 half-lives
D. 4–5 half-lives
14. Polypharmacy increases risk of:
A. Higher adherence
B. Drug–drug interactions
C. Fewer side effects
D. Lower costs
15. Lipophilic drugs tend to:
A. Cross membranes easily
B. Accumulate in water
C. Excrete faster
D. Be poorly absorbed
16. Zero-order kinetics means:
A. Constant percent per hour
B. Constant amount per hour
C. Variable rate
D. Renal elimination only
17. First-line therapy is defined as:
A. Last resort
B. Most effective and safest initial option
C. Optional therapy
D. Experimental therapy
18. Black-box warnings indicate:
A. Mild side effects
B. Serious or life-threatening risks
C. No safety issues
D. Pediatric-only concerns
19. A prodrug is:
A. Pharmacologically inactive until metabolized
, B. Active when ingested
C. Eliminated unchanged
D. Used only in renal disease
20. Drug clearance refers to:
A. Distribution
B. Metabolism
C. Volume of plasma cleared per unit time
D. Protein binding
21. A competitive antagonist:
A. Cannot be overcome
B. Binds irreversibly
C. Competes with agonist and can be overcome
D. Has intrinsic activity
22. Pharmacogenomics focuses on:
A. Diet
B. Genetics influencing drug response
C. Behavior
D. Allergies
23. Drugs with narrow therapeutic index require:
A. No monitoring
B. Frequent monitoring
C. Higher doses
D. Avoidance in all populations
24. Bioavailability refers to:
A. Drug potency
B. Fraction reaching systemic circulation
C. Binding percentage
D. Excretion rate
25. Renal impairment results in:
A. Faster clearance
B. Prolonged half-life
C. Fewer side effects
D. Less bioavailability
