HESI PN MED-SURG — 100 QUESTIONS &
ANSWERS (2025 Latest Version)
Correct answer is marked with
1–10: Cardiovascular
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance is most
important to monitor?
A. Hypermagnesemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyponatremia
2. A client reports chest pain relieved by rest. What type of angina is this?
A. Unstable angina
B. Prinzmetal angina
C. Stable angina
D. Microvascular angina
3. Which finding is most concerning in a client with hypertension?
A. Headache
B. Blurred vision
C. Chest pressure
D. Sudden confusion
4. What is the priority action for a client with suspected MI?
A. Apply warm blankets
B. Give aspirin
C. Encourage fluids
D. Give furosemide
5. Which heart sound is associated with fluid overload?
A. S1
B. S2
,C. S3
D. S4
6. Best position during acute pulmonary edema?
A. Supine
B. High-Fowler’s
C. Lateral
D. Prone
7. Which rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Ventricular tachycardia with pulse
C. Ventricular fibrillation
D. First-degree heart block
8. A client on warfarin has INR of 5.0. What is the priority?
A. Give vitamin K
B. Increase dose
C. Stop all medications
D. Encourage mobility
9. Symptom most associated with left-sided HF:
A. Edema
B. Jugular distention
C. Crackles
D. Hepatomegaly
10. Peripheral arterial disease hallmark symptom:
A. Brown discoloration
B. Pitting edema
C. Intermittent claudication
D. Warm, red skin
11–20: Respiratory
11. COPD oxygen flow rate should not exceed:
A. 8 L/min
B. 6 L/min
,C. 4 L/min
D. 2 L/min
12. Early sign of hypoxia:
A. Cyanosis
B. Bradycardia
C. Restlessness
D. Loss of consciousness
13. Priority in pneumonia:
A. Warm fluids
B. Incentive spirometer
C. Ambulation
D. Steroid therapy
14. Best sputum specimen collection time:
A. At bedtime
B. Before meals
C. Early morning
D. After lunch
15. TB client teaching—most important:
A. Avoid dairy
B. Wear N95 mask
C. Take meds once weekly
D. Stop meds when symptoms improve
16. First intervention for acute asthma attack:
A. IV steroids
B. Chest X-ray
C. Short-acting bronchodilator
D. Antibiotics
17. Expected finding in emphysema:
A. Barrel chest
B. Productive cough
C. Cyanosis
D. Wet crackles
18. Post-op incentive spirometer use:
A. 5 times daily
, B. 10 times hourly
C. 2 times hourly
D. Before meals only
19. Which finding indicates pneumothorax?
A. Loud breath sounds
B. Midline trachea
C. Sudden dyspnea
D. Hypertension
20. Chest tube drainage acceptable finding:
A. 200 mL/hr
B. Bright red blood
C. Gentle bubbling in water seal
D. Clots in tubing
21–30: Gastrointestinal
21. Best diet for diverticulitis (acute):
A. High fiber
B. Low fiber
C. High protein
D. Full dairy
22. Classic sign of appendicitis:
A. LUQ pain
B. RLQ rebound tenderness
C. RUQ cramping
D. Central burning
23. Most common sign of upper GI bleed:
A. Bright red stools
B. Clay-colored stools
C. Melena
D. Steatorrhea
24. Most important teaching for GERD:
A. Drink soda
B. Lie flat after meals
ANSWERS (2025 Latest Version)
Correct answer is marked with
1–10: Cardiovascular
1. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which electrolyte imbalance is most
important to monitor?
A. Hypermagnesemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hyponatremia
2. A client reports chest pain relieved by rest. What type of angina is this?
A. Unstable angina
B. Prinzmetal angina
C. Stable angina
D. Microvascular angina
3. Which finding is most concerning in a client with hypertension?
A. Headache
B. Blurred vision
C. Chest pressure
D. Sudden confusion
4. What is the priority action for a client with suspected MI?
A. Apply warm blankets
B. Give aspirin
C. Encourage fluids
D. Give furosemide
5. Which heart sound is associated with fluid overload?
A. S1
B. S2
,C. S3
D. S4
6. Best position during acute pulmonary edema?
A. Supine
B. High-Fowler’s
C. Lateral
D. Prone
7. Which rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Ventricular tachycardia with pulse
C. Ventricular fibrillation
D. First-degree heart block
8. A client on warfarin has INR of 5.0. What is the priority?
A. Give vitamin K
B. Increase dose
C. Stop all medications
D. Encourage mobility
9. Symptom most associated with left-sided HF:
A. Edema
B. Jugular distention
C. Crackles
D. Hepatomegaly
10. Peripheral arterial disease hallmark symptom:
A. Brown discoloration
B. Pitting edema
C. Intermittent claudication
D. Warm, red skin
11–20: Respiratory
11. COPD oxygen flow rate should not exceed:
A. 8 L/min
B. 6 L/min
,C. 4 L/min
D. 2 L/min
12. Early sign of hypoxia:
A. Cyanosis
B. Bradycardia
C. Restlessness
D. Loss of consciousness
13. Priority in pneumonia:
A. Warm fluids
B. Incentive spirometer
C. Ambulation
D. Steroid therapy
14. Best sputum specimen collection time:
A. At bedtime
B. Before meals
C. Early morning
D. After lunch
15. TB client teaching—most important:
A. Avoid dairy
B. Wear N95 mask
C. Take meds once weekly
D. Stop meds when symptoms improve
16. First intervention for acute asthma attack:
A. IV steroids
B. Chest X-ray
C. Short-acting bronchodilator
D. Antibiotics
17. Expected finding in emphysema:
A. Barrel chest
B. Productive cough
C. Cyanosis
D. Wet crackles
18. Post-op incentive spirometer use:
A. 5 times daily
, B. 10 times hourly
C. 2 times hourly
D. Before meals only
19. Which finding indicates pneumothorax?
A. Loud breath sounds
B. Midline trachea
C. Sudden dyspnea
D. Hypertension
20. Chest tube drainage acceptable finding:
A. 200 mL/hr
B. Bright red blood
C. Gentle bubbling in water seal
D. Clots in tubing
21–30: Gastrointestinal
21. Best diet for diverticulitis (acute):
A. High fiber
B. Low fiber
C. High protein
D. Full dairy
22. Classic sign of appendicitis:
A. LUQ pain
B. RLQ rebound tenderness
C. RUQ cramping
D. Central burning
23. Most common sign of upper GI bleed:
A. Bright red stools
B. Clay-colored stools
C. Melena
D. Steatorrhea
24. Most important teaching for GERD:
A. Drink soda
B. Lie flat after meals
