1|Page
FNP III EXAM 2 NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM TEST
BANK| FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER 3 EXAM 2
WITH COMPLETE 350 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
Which of the following diagnostic tests would be ordered serially to
evaluate a stable abdominal aortic aneurysm that measures 5cm, not yet
large enough for surgery?
A. Abdominal x-ray.
B. Abdominal ultrasound.
C. Arterial angiography.
D. CT Scan of the aorta. - Correct Answer -B. Abdominal ultrasound.
Abdominal ultrasound is the preferred noninvasive, inexpensive, and
accurate test for serial monitoring of known, stable abdominal aortic
aneurysms (AAAs). It's typically performed every 6-12 months for
aneurysms between 4.0-5.4 cm in diameter to monitor for enlargement.
CT scan of the aorta: Provides more detail but exposes the patient to
radiation and contrast—reserved for cases where ultrasound findings are
equivocal or surgical intervention is being considered.
A patient who has been diagnosed with heart failure for over a year
reports being comfortable while at rest but experiences palpitations and
dyspnea when walking to the bathroom. Which classification of heart
failure is appropriate based on these symptoms?
pg. 1
,2|Page
A. Class IV
B. Class I
C. Class III
D. Class II - Correct Answer -D. Class II
(controversy if class III, check back with professor input)
For a carotid bruit auscultated on physical exam, which of the following
diagnostic tests should the FNP order?
A. Computed tomography angiography (CTA)
B. Carotid duplex/ultrasound.
C. X-ray imaging of the neck.
D. Carotid angiography. - Correct Answer -B.
A carotid bruit suggests turbulent blood flow, often due to carotid artery
stenosis. The first-line diagnostic test for evaluation is a carotid duplex
(ultrasound) — it is noninvasive, accurate, and measures blood flow
velocity to estimate the degree of stenosis.
A 56-year-old patient with a history of alcoholic cirrhosis presents for
routine evaluation. On auscultation, a continuous venous hum is heard
over the epigastrium, which becomes louder during the Valsalva
maneuver. Which of the following best explains this finding?
A. Patent ductus arteriosus
B. Cruveilhier-Baumgarten murmur due to recanalization of the
umbilical vein
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C. Hepatic artery aneurysm
D. Portal vein thrombosis - Correct Answer -B.
portal hypertension from cirrhosis. It results from recanalization of the
paraumbilical veins within the ligamentum teres, creating abnormal
collateral flow between the portal and systemic venous systems. The
murmur is augmented by the Valsalva maneuver due to increased venous
return.
Which of the following would be the most optimal INR reading for a
patient with atrial fibrillation on warfarin?
A. 2.5
B. 4.0
C. 3.5
D. 1.5 - Correct Answer -A. 2.5
For a patient with atrial fibrillation on warfarin, the therapeutic INR
range is 2.0-3.0. The most optimal target within that range is typically
2.5, representing the midpoint and ideal balance between preventing clot
formation and minimizing bleeding risk.
Under the newest posted guidelines for managing venous thrombus
embolism, which of the following conditions is recommended to be
managed initially with 2 weeks of serial imaging potentially without
anticoagulation?
A. Complicated, unprovoked, proximal deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
B. Those at high risk for recurrent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
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C. Acute, isolated distal deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
D. Pulmonary embolism with associated deep vein thrombosis (DVT). -
Correct Answer -C. Acute, isolated distal deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Acute, isolated distal DVT (below the popliteal vein) can be managed
with serial imaging for 2 weeks without immediate anticoagulation if:
The patient has no severe symptoms, and There are no risk factors for
thrombus extension (such as active cancer, previous VTE, inpatient
status, or extensive thrombosis).
A patient has a chronically enlarged, asymptomatic lymph node of the
neck. The NP suspects Lymphoma and will refer the patient for which
diagnostic test to make the definitive histologic diagnosis?
B. MRI of the neck.
B. Soft tissue ultrasound of the neck.
C. Lymph node biopsy.
D. PET Scan. - Correct Answer -C. Lymph node biopsy.
A definitive diagnosis of lymphoma requires histologic examination of
lymph node tissue.
What is the most common type of cancer diagnosed in children?
A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
B. Bone Cancer
C. Lymphoma Chronic
pg. 4
FNP III EXAM 2 NEWEST 2025 ACTUAL EXAM TEST
BANK| FAMILY NURSE PRACTITIONER 3 EXAM 2
WITH COMPLETE 350 REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
Which of the following diagnostic tests would be ordered serially to
evaluate a stable abdominal aortic aneurysm that measures 5cm, not yet
large enough for surgery?
A. Abdominal x-ray.
B. Abdominal ultrasound.
C. Arterial angiography.
D. CT Scan of the aorta. - Correct Answer -B. Abdominal ultrasound.
Abdominal ultrasound is the preferred noninvasive, inexpensive, and
accurate test for serial monitoring of known, stable abdominal aortic
aneurysms (AAAs). It's typically performed every 6-12 months for
aneurysms between 4.0-5.4 cm in diameter to monitor for enlargement.
CT scan of the aorta: Provides more detail but exposes the patient to
radiation and contrast—reserved for cases where ultrasound findings are
equivocal or surgical intervention is being considered.
A patient who has been diagnosed with heart failure for over a year
reports being comfortable while at rest but experiences palpitations and
dyspnea when walking to the bathroom. Which classification of heart
failure is appropriate based on these symptoms?
pg. 1
,2|Page
A. Class IV
B. Class I
C. Class III
D. Class II - Correct Answer -D. Class II
(controversy if class III, check back with professor input)
For a carotid bruit auscultated on physical exam, which of the following
diagnostic tests should the FNP order?
A. Computed tomography angiography (CTA)
B. Carotid duplex/ultrasound.
C. X-ray imaging of the neck.
D. Carotid angiography. - Correct Answer -B.
A carotid bruit suggests turbulent blood flow, often due to carotid artery
stenosis. The first-line diagnostic test for evaluation is a carotid duplex
(ultrasound) — it is noninvasive, accurate, and measures blood flow
velocity to estimate the degree of stenosis.
A 56-year-old patient with a history of alcoholic cirrhosis presents for
routine evaluation. On auscultation, a continuous venous hum is heard
over the epigastrium, which becomes louder during the Valsalva
maneuver. Which of the following best explains this finding?
A. Patent ductus arteriosus
B. Cruveilhier-Baumgarten murmur due to recanalization of the
umbilical vein
pg. 2
,3|Page
C. Hepatic artery aneurysm
D. Portal vein thrombosis - Correct Answer -B.
portal hypertension from cirrhosis. It results from recanalization of the
paraumbilical veins within the ligamentum teres, creating abnormal
collateral flow between the portal and systemic venous systems. The
murmur is augmented by the Valsalva maneuver due to increased venous
return.
Which of the following would be the most optimal INR reading for a
patient with atrial fibrillation on warfarin?
A. 2.5
B. 4.0
C. 3.5
D. 1.5 - Correct Answer -A. 2.5
For a patient with atrial fibrillation on warfarin, the therapeutic INR
range is 2.0-3.0. The most optimal target within that range is typically
2.5, representing the midpoint and ideal balance between preventing clot
formation and minimizing bleeding risk.
Under the newest posted guidelines for managing venous thrombus
embolism, which of the following conditions is recommended to be
managed initially with 2 weeks of serial imaging potentially without
anticoagulation?
A. Complicated, unprovoked, proximal deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
B. Those at high risk for recurrent deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
pg. 3
, 4|Page
C. Acute, isolated distal deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
D. Pulmonary embolism with associated deep vein thrombosis (DVT). -
Correct Answer -C. Acute, isolated distal deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
Acute, isolated distal DVT (below the popliteal vein) can be managed
with serial imaging for 2 weeks without immediate anticoagulation if:
The patient has no severe symptoms, and There are no risk factors for
thrombus extension (such as active cancer, previous VTE, inpatient
status, or extensive thrombosis).
A patient has a chronically enlarged, asymptomatic lymph node of the
neck. The NP suspects Lymphoma and will refer the patient for which
diagnostic test to make the definitive histologic diagnosis?
B. MRI of the neck.
B. Soft tissue ultrasound of the neck.
C. Lymph node biopsy.
D. PET Scan. - Correct Answer -C. Lymph node biopsy.
A definitive diagnosis of lymphoma requires histologic examination of
lymph node tissue.
What is the most common type of cancer diagnosed in children?
A. Acute Lymphoblastic Leukemia (ALL)
B. Bone Cancer
C. Lymphoma Chronic
pg. 4
