NUR 631 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS | 100% PASS (A+ CERTIFIED)

NUR 631 FINAL EXAM QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS | 100% PASS (A+ CERTIFIED) 1. Removal of part of the liver leads to the remaining liver cells undergoing compensatory Correct Answer Compensatory hyperplasia is an adaptive mechanism that enables certain organs to regenerate. For example, the removal of part of the liver leads to hyperplasia of the remaining liver cells (hepatocytes) to compensate for the loss. 2. Which of the following statements best describes Raynaud disease? a. An inflammatory disorder of small and medium-size arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands b. A neoplastic disorder of the lining of the arteries and veins of the upper extremities c. A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly, the toes d. An autoimmune disorder of the large arteries and veins of the upper and lower extremities Correct Answer c. A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly, the toes 3. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures may result from this condition? a. Right heart failure b. Left heart failure c. Low-output failure d. High-output failure Correct Answer a. Right heart failure Exp: Right heart failure is defined as the inability of the right ventricle to provide adequate blood flow into the pulmonary circulation at a normal central venous pressure. It most often results from the left heart failure when the increase in left ventricular filling pressure that is reflected back into the pulmonary circulation is severe enough. As pressure in the pulmonary circulation rises, the resistance to right ventricular emptying increases. 4. What physical sign is the result of turbulent blood flow through a vessel? a. Increased blood pressure during periods of stress b. Bounding pulse felt on palpation c. Cyanosis observed on excretion d. Murmur heard on auscultation Correct Answer d. Murmur heard on auscultation Exp: Where flow is obstructed the vessel turns or blood flows over rough surfaces. The flow becomes turbulent with whorls or eddy currents that produce noise causing a murmur to be heard on auscultation such as occurs during blood pressure measurement with a sphygomanometer. This selection is the only option that accurately identifies the physical sign of turbulent vascular blood flow. pg 1113 5. Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18 and down syndrome? a. Coarctation of the aorta and pulmonary stenosis b. Tetralogy of Fallot and persistent truncus arteriosus c. Atrial septal defect and dextrocardia d. Ventricular septal defect and patent ductus arteriosus Correct Answer d. Ventricular septal defect and patent ductus arteriosus Exp: Congenital heart defects that are related to dysfunction of trisomy 13, trisomy 18 and down syndrome include VSD and PDA see Table 33-2 The other defects are not associated with dysfunction of trisomy 13 or 17 and down syndrome. pg 1200 6. An infant has a continuous machine/type murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border throughout systole and diastole as well as a bounding pulse and a thrill on palpation. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect? a. Atrial septal defect b. Ventricular septal defect c. Patent ductus arteriosus d. Atrioventricular canal defect Correct Answer c. Patent ductus arteriosus Exp: If pulmonary vascular resistance has fallen then infants with will characteristically have a continuous machine/type murmur best heard at the left upper sternal border throughout systole and diastole. If the PDA is significant then the infant also will have bounding pulses an active precordium, a thrill on palpation and signs and symptoms of pulmonary over circulation. The presentations of the other congenital heart defects are not consistent with the described the symptoms pages 7. Which compensatory mechanism is spontaneously used by children diagnosed with tetralogy of Fallot to relieve hypoxic spells? a. Lying on their left side b. Performing the valsalva maneuver c. Squatting d. hyperventilating Correct Answer c. Squatting Exp: squatting is a spontaneous compensatory mechanism used by older children to alleviate hypoxic spells. Squatting and its variants increase systemic resistance while decreasing venous return to the heart from the inferior vena cava. The other options would not result in these changes. pg 1209 8. An infant diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus would likely exhibit which symptom? a. Intermittent murmur b. Lack of symptoms c. Need for surgical repair d. Triad of congenital defects Correct Answer b. Lack of symptoms Exp: Infants with a small PDA usually remain asymptomatic. page 9. Fluid in the pleural space characterizes which condition? a. Pleural effusion b. Atelectasis c. Bronchiectasis d. Ischemia Correct Answer a. Pleural Effusion Exp: Pleural effusion is the presence of fluid in the pleural space. page1254 10. Which medication classification is generally included in the treatment of silicosis? a. Corticosteroids b. Antiboitics c. Bronchodilators d. Expectorants Correct Answer a. Corticosteroids Exp: No specific treatment exists for silicosis, although corticosteroids may produce some improvement in the early, more acute stages. page 1259 11. The risk for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) decreases for premature infants when they are born between how many weeks of gestation? a. 16 and 24 b. 20 and 24 c. 24 and 30 d. 30 and 36 Correct Answer d. 30 and 36 Exp Correct Answer Surfactant is secreted into fetal airways between 30 and 36 weeks. The other options are not true regarding the timeframe when the risk for RDS decreases. page 1292 12. What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? a. Low birth weight b. Alcohol consumption during pregnanc c. Premature birth d. Smoking during pregnancy Correct Answer a. Premature birth Exp: RDS of the newborn, also known as hyaline membrane disease (HMD), is a major cause of morbidity and mortality in premature newborns. page 1301 13. What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? a. Immature immune system b. Small alveoli c. Surfactant deficiency d. Anemia Correct Answer c. Surfactant deficiency Exp: RDS is primarily caused by surfactant deficiency and secondarily by a deficiency in alveolar surface area for gas exchange. page 1301 14. What is the primary problem resulting from respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn? a. Consolidation b. Pulmonary edema c. Atelectasis d. Bronchiolar plugging Correct Answer c. Atelectasis Exp: The primary problem is atelectasis, which causes significant hypoxemia and is difficult for the neonate to overcome because a significant negative inspiratory pressure is required to open the alveoli with each breath. None of the other options are considered a primary problem associated with RDS. page 1301 15. Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis? a. Obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation b. Respiratory disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pul-monary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest X-ray imaging c. P!ulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-produc-ing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens d. Pulmonary disorder characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency: c. Pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens Exp: Cystic fibrosis is best described as a pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein-producing viscous mucus that obstructs the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens. This selection is the only option that accurately describes cystic fibrosis. pages