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NR507/ NR 507 Midterm Exam 1 (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Advanced Pathophysiology | Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct |Grade A – Chamberlain

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NR507/ NR 507 Midterm Exam 1 (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Advanced Pathophysiology | Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct |Grade A – Chamberlain

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NR507/ NR 507 Midterm Exam 1 (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update)
Advanced Pathophysiology | Questions and Verified Answers| 100%
Correct |Grade A – Chamberlain


Question 1
Which of the following best describes the process of cell transformation in the context of cancer
development?
A) The process of a stem cell differentiating into a specialized cell.
B) A normal cell undergoing a series of genetic mutations to become a cancer cell.
C) The 24-hour cycle of cellular division and replication.
D) The programmed cell death of a damaged cell.
E) The specialization of a cell for a specific function.

Correct Answer: B) A normal cell undergoing a series of genetic mutations to become a
cancer cell.
Rationale: Cell transformation is the process by which a normal, healthy cell acquires the
properties of a cancer cell. This typically involves multiple mutations that affect genes
controlling cell growth and division, leading to uncontrolled proliferation.

Question 2
A researcher is studying cells that are undifferentiated and have the potential for infinite cellular
division when stimulated. What type of cell is being studied?
A) A cancer cell
B) A somatic cell
C) A neuron
D) A stem cell
E) An epithelial cell

Correct Answer: D) A stem cell
Rationale: A stem cell is defined as an immature, undifferentiated cell that has the unique
ability to differentiate into specialized cell types and to divide indefinitely to produce more
stem cells.

Question 3
What is the term for the regulated sequence of events that occurs in a cell leading to its division

,[Type here]

and duplication?
A) Meiosis
B) Cell transformation
C) Apoptosis
D) The cell cycle
E) Cellular differentiation

Correct Answer: D) The cell cycle
Rationale: The cell cycle is the ordered process through which a stem cell, or any dividing
cell, duplicates its contents and divides into two daughter cells. This process typically takes
about 24 hours on average.

Question 4
A client experiences a severe, life-threatening allergic reaction with throat tightness and
shortness of breath immediately after a bee sting. This reaction is classified as which type of
hypersensitivity?
A) Type 1
B) Type 2
C) Type 3
D) Type 4
E) Type 5

Correct Answer: A) Type 1
Rationale: Anaphylaxis is the most severe form of a Type 1 (IgE-mediated) hypersensitivity
reaction. It is a rapid, systemic reaction that occurs when an allergen binds to IgE
antibodies on mast cells and basophils, triggering a massive release of histamine and other
inflammatory mediators.

Question 5
Type 2 (Cytotoxic) hypersensitivity reactions, such as an ABO blood transfusion incompatibility,
are mediated by which antibodies?
A) IgA or IgD
B) IgE only
C) IgG or IgM

,[Type here]

D) IgD only
E) IgA only

Correct Answer: C) IgG or IgM
Rationale: In Type 2 hypersensitivity reactions, antibodies (specifically IgG or IgM) are
directed against antigens on the surface of cells or in the extracellular matrix. This
antibody binding leads to cell destruction via complement activation or antibody-
dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity.

Question 6
During an incompatible blood transfusion, what is the primary mechanism that causes the lysis
of the recipient's red blood cells?
A) Phagocytosis by macrophages
B) T-cell mediated cytotoxicity
C) Mast cell degranulation
D) Activation of the complement system
E) Release of IgE antibodies

Correct Answer: D) Activation of the complement system
Rationale: When incompatible blood is transfused, pre-existing IgM or IgG antibodies bind
to the antigens on the donor red blood cells. This antibody-antigen complex is a potent
activator of the complement cascade, which ultimately forms a membrane attack complex
(MAC) that punches holes in the RBC membrane, causing cell lysis and hemoglobin
release.

Question 7
A predominant cause of secondary immunodeficiencies on a global scale is which of the
following?
A) Genetic mutations
B) Malnutrition
C) Psychological stress
D) Autoimmune disease
E) Exposure to radiation

, [Type here]

Correct Answer: B) Malnutrition
Rationale: Secondary (or acquired) immunodeficiencies are caused by external factors
rather than a genetic defect. Malnutrition, particularly protein-calorie malnutrition, is the
most common cause worldwide as it impairs the production and function of immune cells
and antibodies, leading to increased susceptibility to infections.

Question 8
Which of the following conditions is an example of an autoimmune disease?
A) Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS)
B) Chronic Granulomatous Disease
C) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
D) DiGeorge Syndrome
E) Sinusitis

Correct Answer: C) Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)
Rationale: Autoimmune diseases occur when the immune system mistakenly attacks the
body's own tissues. SLE is a classic systemic autoimmune disease where the body produces
autoantibodies against its own nuclear antigens, leading to widespread inflammation and
tissue damage in multiple organ systems.

Question 9
Which of the following conditions is an example of a primary immunodeficiency?
A) Pneumocystis Carinii Pneumonia
B) Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
C) Malnutrition
D) Chronic Granulomatous Disease
E) Sinus infection

Correct Answer: D) Chronic Granulomatous Disease
Rationale: Primary immunodeficiencies are caused by congenital or genetic defects in the
immune system. Chronic Granulomatous Disease is a genetic disorder affecting phagocytic
cells, rendering them unable to effectively kill certain pathogens.

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