PAEA EOC & SUMMATIVE EXAM (2025/2026)
Actual Exam with Complete Questions | Physician Assistant Education Association | End of
Curriculum & Summative Assessment
Overview
This 2025/2026 validated resource contains the complete PAEA End of Curriculum and
Summative Exam with actual questions and verified answers, directly aligned with current
Physician Assistant Education Association standards. Essential for physician assistant
students preparing for comprehensive program assessment and demonstrating readiness for
clinical practice and PANCE preparation.
Key Features
✓ 300-Question Comprehensive Exam Series matching PAEA testing format
✓ Medical Knowledge Integration across all clinical domains
✓ Clinical Reasoning Applications with patient management scenarios
✓ Updated 2025/2026 PAEA blueprint and content guidelines
✓ Interdisciplinary Care Coordination with evidence-based practice
Content Domains
• Medical Knowledge & Application (75 Questions)
• Clinical Reasoning & Diagnosis (65 Questions)
• Patient Management & Treatment (60 Questions)
• Preventive Care & Health Maintenance (40 Questions)
• Professional Practice & Ethics (35 Questions)
• Healthcare Systems & Quality (25 Questions)
Answer Format
Verified correct answers in bold green with:
• Diagnostic reasoning pathways
• Treatment protocol justifications
• Evidence-based practice applications
• Clinical decision-making rationales
Critical Updates 2025/2026
NEW - Telehealth integration protocols
UPDATED - Chronic disease management guidelines
REVISED - Cultural competency standards
MODIFIED - Quality improvement methodologies
MEDICAL KNOWLEDGE & APPLICATION (Questions 1–75)
1. Which cytokine is primarily responsible for fever in systemic inflammation?
a) IL-4
b) IL-1β
c) IL-10
, d) TGF-β
Rationale: IL-1β acts on hypothalamic thermoregulatory centers.
2. The most common cause of secondary hypertension in young adults is?
a) Coarctation of aorta
b) Primary aldosteronism
c) Pheochromocytoma
d) Cushing syndrome
Rationale: Primary aldosteronism often presents as resistant hypertension.
3. Which ECG finding is pathognomonic for hyperkalemia?
a) Peaked T-waves
b) Sine wave pattern
c) Prolonged PR
d) Widened QRS
Rationale: Sine wave indicates severe hyperkalemia requiring immediate
treatment.
4. The gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism is?
a) D-dimer
b) CT pulmonary angiography
c) V/Q scan
d) Echocardiogram
Rationale: CTPA provides direct visualization with high sensitivity/specificity.
5. Which autoantibody is specific for systemic sclerosis?
a) ANA
b) Anti-centromere
c) Anti-dsDNA
d) Anti-RNP
Rationale: Anti-centromere associated with limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis.
6. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in elderly is?
a) Legionella
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Mycoplasma
d) Chlamydia
Rationale: S. pneumoniae remains most common despite vaccines.
7. Which thyroid cancer has the best prognosis?
a) Anaplastic
b) Papillary
c) Medullary
d) Follicular
Rationale: Papillary has >95% 10-year survival.
8. The diagnostic test for hereditary hemochromatosis is?
a) Ferritin
b) HFE gene mutation analysis
c) Iron saturation
d) Liver biopsy
Rationale: C282Y mutation confirms diagnosis.
9. Which arrhythmia is most common in acute MI?
a) Ventricular fibrillation
, b) Premature ventricular contractions
c) Atrial fibrillation
d) Heart block
Rationale: PVCs are early warning of ventricular irritability.
10. The most sensitive marker for acute hepatitis B infection is?
a) Anti-HBs
b) HBsAg
c) Anti-HBc
d) Anti-HBe
Rationale: HBsAg appears first and indicates active infection.
11. Which vitamin deficiency causes beriberi?
a) B12
b) B1 (thiamine)
c) B6
d) Folate
Rationale: Thiamine deficiency causes wet/dry beriberi.
12. The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults is?
a) Diabetes
b) Membranous nephropathy
c) FSGS
d) Amyloidosis
Rationale: Membranous is most common primary cause.
13. Which antibody is associated with Goodpasture syndrome?
a) ANCA
b) Anti-GBM
c) Anti-dsDNA
d) Rheumatoid factor
Rationale: Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies.
14. The most common cause of acute pancreatitis is?
a) Trauma
b) Gallstones
c) Alcohol
d) Hyperlipidemia
Rationale: Gallstones cause 40-50% of cases.
15. Which ECG finding is characteristic of pericarditis?
a) Q-waves
b) PR depression
c) Tall R-waves
d) Delta wave
Rationale: PR depression in multiple leads.
16. The most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults is?
a) Listeria
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Neisseria
d) Haemophilus
Rationale: S. pneumoniae most common in adults.
, 17. Which tumour marker is elevated in testicular seminoma?
a) AFP
b) hCG
c) CEA
d) CA-125
Rationale: hCG elevated in 15-25% of seminomas.
18. The most common cause of spontaneous abortion is?
a) Trauma
b) Chromosomal abnormalities
c) Infection
d) Maternal disease
Rationale: 50-60% of first-trimester losses.
19. Which antibody is associated with myasthenia gravis?
a) Anti-Jo-1
b) Anti-AChR
c) Anti-Scl-70
d) Anti-Ro
Rationale: Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies.
20. The most common cause of iron deficiency anemia in men is?
a) Poor diet
b) GI blood loss
c) Menstruation
d) Malabsorption
Rationale: GI bleeding until proven otherwise.
21. Which ECG finding suggests hypothermia?
a) Tall T-waves
b) Osborn waves
c) Short QT
d) Delta wave
Rationale: Osborn (J) waves at QRS-ST junction.
22. The most common cause of acute liver failure in US is?
a) Hepatitis B
b) Acetaminophen overdose
c) Wilson disease
d) Autoimmune
Rationale: Acetaminophen causes 50% of cases.
23. Which antibody is associated with Sjögren syndrome?
a) Anti-CCP
b) Anti-SSA/Ro
c) Anti-dsDNA
d) Anti-Scl-70
Rationale: Anti-Ro/La associated with Sjögren's.
24. The most common cause of acute kidney injury is?
a) Glomerulonephritis
b) Acute tubular necrosis
c) Interstitial nephritis
Actual Exam with Complete Questions | Physician Assistant Education Association | End of
Curriculum & Summative Assessment
Overview
This 2025/2026 validated resource contains the complete PAEA End of Curriculum and
Summative Exam with actual questions and verified answers, directly aligned with current
Physician Assistant Education Association standards. Essential for physician assistant
students preparing for comprehensive program assessment and demonstrating readiness for
clinical practice and PANCE preparation.
Key Features
✓ 300-Question Comprehensive Exam Series matching PAEA testing format
✓ Medical Knowledge Integration across all clinical domains
✓ Clinical Reasoning Applications with patient management scenarios
✓ Updated 2025/2026 PAEA blueprint and content guidelines
✓ Interdisciplinary Care Coordination with evidence-based practice
Content Domains
• Medical Knowledge & Application (75 Questions)
• Clinical Reasoning & Diagnosis (65 Questions)
• Patient Management & Treatment (60 Questions)
• Preventive Care & Health Maintenance (40 Questions)
• Professional Practice & Ethics (35 Questions)
• Healthcare Systems & Quality (25 Questions)
Answer Format
Verified correct answers in bold green with:
• Diagnostic reasoning pathways
• Treatment protocol justifications
• Evidence-based practice applications
• Clinical decision-making rationales
Critical Updates 2025/2026
NEW - Telehealth integration protocols
UPDATED - Chronic disease management guidelines
REVISED - Cultural competency standards
MODIFIED - Quality improvement methodologies
MEDICAL KNOWLEDGE & APPLICATION (Questions 1–75)
1. Which cytokine is primarily responsible for fever in systemic inflammation?
a) IL-4
b) IL-1β
c) IL-10
, d) TGF-β
Rationale: IL-1β acts on hypothalamic thermoregulatory centers.
2. The most common cause of secondary hypertension in young adults is?
a) Coarctation of aorta
b) Primary aldosteronism
c) Pheochromocytoma
d) Cushing syndrome
Rationale: Primary aldosteronism often presents as resistant hypertension.
3. Which ECG finding is pathognomonic for hyperkalemia?
a) Peaked T-waves
b) Sine wave pattern
c) Prolonged PR
d) Widened QRS
Rationale: Sine wave indicates severe hyperkalemia requiring immediate
treatment.
4. The gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism is?
a) D-dimer
b) CT pulmonary angiography
c) V/Q scan
d) Echocardiogram
Rationale: CTPA provides direct visualization with high sensitivity/specificity.
5. Which autoantibody is specific for systemic sclerosis?
a) ANA
b) Anti-centromere
c) Anti-dsDNA
d) Anti-RNP
Rationale: Anti-centromere associated with limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis.
6. The most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia in elderly is?
a) Legionella
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Mycoplasma
d) Chlamydia
Rationale: S. pneumoniae remains most common despite vaccines.
7. Which thyroid cancer has the best prognosis?
a) Anaplastic
b) Papillary
c) Medullary
d) Follicular
Rationale: Papillary has >95% 10-year survival.
8. The diagnostic test for hereditary hemochromatosis is?
a) Ferritin
b) HFE gene mutation analysis
c) Iron saturation
d) Liver biopsy
Rationale: C282Y mutation confirms diagnosis.
9. Which arrhythmia is most common in acute MI?
a) Ventricular fibrillation
, b) Premature ventricular contractions
c) Atrial fibrillation
d) Heart block
Rationale: PVCs are early warning of ventricular irritability.
10. The most sensitive marker for acute hepatitis B infection is?
a) Anti-HBs
b) HBsAg
c) Anti-HBc
d) Anti-HBe
Rationale: HBsAg appears first and indicates active infection.
11. Which vitamin deficiency causes beriberi?
a) B12
b) B1 (thiamine)
c) B6
d) Folate
Rationale: Thiamine deficiency causes wet/dry beriberi.
12. The most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in adults is?
a) Diabetes
b) Membranous nephropathy
c) FSGS
d) Amyloidosis
Rationale: Membranous is most common primary cause.
13. Which antibody is associated with Goodpasture syndrome?
a) ANCA
b) Anti-GBM
c) Anti-dsDNA
d) Rheumatoid factor
Rationale: Anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies.
14. The most common cause of acute pancreatitis is?
a) Trauma
b) Gallstones
c) Alcohol
d) Hyperlipidemia
Rationale: Gallstones cause 40-50% of cases.
15. Which ECG finding is characteristic of pericarditis?
a) Q-waves
b) PR depression
c) Tall R-waves
d) Delta wave
Rationale: PR depression in multiple leads.
16. The most common cause of bacterial meningitis in adults is?
a) Listeria
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Neisseria
d) Haemophilus
Rationale: S. pneumoniae most common in adults.
, 17. Which tumour marker is elevated in testicular seminoma?
a) AFP
b) hCG
c) CEA
d) CA-125
Rationale: hCG elevated in 15-25% of seminomas.
18. The most common cause of spontaneous abortion is?
a) Trauma
b) Chromosomal abnormalities
c) Infection
d) Maternal disease
Rationale: 50-60% of first-trimester losses.
19. Which antibody is associated with myasthenia gravis?
a) Anti-Jo-1
b) Anti-AChR
c) Anti-Scl-70
d) Anti-Ro
Rationale: Anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies.
20. The most common cause of iron deficiency anemia in men is?
a) Poor diet
b) GI blood loss
c) Menstruation
d) Malabsorption
Rationale: GI bleeding until proven otherwise.
21. Which ECG finding suggests hypothermia?
a) Tall T-waves
b) Osborn waves
c) Short QT
d) Delta wave
Rationale: Osborn (J) waves at QRS-ST junction.
22. The most common cause of acute liver failure in US is?
a) Hepatitis B
b) Acetaminophen overdose
c) Wilson disease
d) Autoimmune
Rationale: Acetaminophen causes 50% of cases.
23. Which antibody is associated with Sjögren syndrome?
a) Anti-CCP
b) Anti-SSA/Ro
c) Anti-dsDNA
d) Anti-Scl-70
Rationale: Anti-Ro/La associated with Sjögren's.
24. The most common cause of acute kidney injury is?
a) Glomerulonephritis
b) Acute tubular necrosis
c) Interstitial nephritis
