NSG 3280 Exam 4
NSG 3280 Exam 4 with 50 Questions and 100% Correct Answers with Rationales
Latest Fall 2025/2026 Update – Galen.
1. A nurse is educating a group of young adults on risk factors for HPV
infection. Which individual is at greatest risk?
A. A 30-year-old woman in a monogamous marriage
B. A 22-year-old with multiple sexual partners
C. A 40-year-old man with no sexual history
D. A 19-year-old abstinent college student
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The highest prevalence of HPV is in individuals ages 16–25 who have
multiple sexual partners. Option A is lower risk due to a monogamous
relationship. Option C is unlikely given no reported sexual history. Option D is at
very low risk due to abstinence.
2. A patient presents with inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis.
The nurse identifies this condition as:
A. Phimosis
B. Paraphimosis
C. Priapism
D. Peyronie’s disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Phimosis is the inability to retract the foreskin, which can predispose to
penile cancer. Paraphimosis is when the foreskin is retracted and cannot be
returned, creating a urologic emergency. Priapism is a prolonged painful erection.
Peyronie’s disease involves fibrous plaques in the penis causing curvature.
3. Which genital condition is considered a urological emergency due to risk of
vascular compromise?
A. Phimosis
B. Paraphimosis
C. Balanitis
D. Hydrocele
Correct answer: B
,NSG 3280 Exam 4
Rationale: Paraphimosis causes venous congestion, swelling, and edema of the
glans, making it a urologic emergency. Phimosis is not emergent unless recurrent
infections occur. Balanitis is inflammation of the glans and foreskin. Hydrocele is a
fluid-filled sac around the testis, not emergent.
4. Erectile dysfunction can result from decreased secretion of which
hormone?
A. Testosterone
B. Luteinizing hormone
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Low luteinizing hormone leads to decreased stimulation of
testosterone production, contributing to erectile dysfunction. Testosterone is the
end hormone affected, not the root cause. Estrogen and progesterone are not
primary factors in male erectile function.
5. A penile tumescence test evaluates for which disorder?
A. Testicular torsion
B. Erectile dysfunction
C. Prostate cancer
D. Varicocele
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The penile tumescence test monitors nocturnal erections to distinguish
psychogenic from organic erectile dysfunction. Testicular torsion is diagnosed with
Doppler ultrasound. Prostate cancer requires PSA or biopsy. Varicocele is identified
by physical exam or ultrasound.
6. What cellular damage contributes to erectile dysfunction development?
A. Damage to osteoblasts
B. Damage to vascular endothelial cells
C. Damage to fibroblasts
D. Damage to Schwann cells
,NSG 3280 Exam 4
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Erectile dysfunction is strongly linked to vascular endothelial cell
damage, leading to impaired nitric oxide and vasodilation. Osteoblasts are for
bone formation. Fibroblasts produce connective tissue. Schwann cells affect
peripheral nerve myelination.
7. A hallmark sign of epididymitis is:
A. Scrotal erythema with itching
B. Tenderness along posterior testis
C. Fluid-filled sac around testis
D. Pain relieved by scrotal elevation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Epididymitis presents with tenderness of the epididymis along the
posterior and superior aspects of the testis. Hydrocele is a fluid-filled sac. Scrotal
erythema and itching may suggest fungal infection. Pain relief with elevation
(Prehn’s sign) may be supportive but tenderness is hallmark.
8. A patient with scrotal pain should first be evaluated with which
diagnostic test?
A. CBC
B. Urinalysis
C. Scrotal ultrasound
D. CT scan Correct
answer: B
Rationale: Urinalysis is the first test to identify infection in scrotal pain. Scrotal
ultrasound may follow if torsion is suspected. CBC helps identify systemic
infection but not the first choice. CT scan is not standard for scrotal evaluation.
9. The peak incidence of testicular cancer occurs in:
A. Childhood
B. Late adolescence to early adulthood
, NSG 3280 Exam 4
C. Middle age
D. Elderly males
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Testicular cancer most often develops in late adolescence to early
adulthood. Childhood tumors are rare. Middle-age and elderly onset is uncommon
compared to younger adults.
10. What genital disorder is strongly correlated with testicular cancer?
A. Cryptorchidism
B. Varicocele
C. Hydrocele
D. Epididymitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cryptorchidism (undescended testes) is a strong risk factor for
testicular cancer. Varicocele and hydrocele are benign. Epididymitis is infectious
but not a cancer risk.
11. Most prostate cancers are classified as:
A. Sarcomas
B. Adenocarcinomas
C. Squamous cell carcinomas
D. Transitional cell carcinomas
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The majority of prostate cancers are adenocarcinomas. Sarcomas are
rare connective tissue cancers. Squamous and transitional carcinomas are less
common in the prostate.
12. What is often the first sign of prostate cancer?
A. Dysuria
B. Bone pain
C. Hematuria
D. Nocturia
NSG 3280 Exam 4 with 50 Questions and 100% Correct Answers with Rationales
Latest Fall 2025/2026 Update – Galen.
1. A nurse is educating a group of young adults on risk factors for HPV
infection. Which individual is at greatest risk?
A. A 30-year-old woman in a monogamous marriage
B. A 22-year-old with multiple sexual partners
C. A 40-year-old man with no sexual history
D. A 19-year-old abstinent college student
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The highest prevalence of HPV is in individuals ages 16–25 who have
multiple sexual partners. Option A is lower risk due to a monogamous
relationship. Option C is unlikely given no reported sexual history. Option D is at
very low risk due to abstinence.
2. A patient presents with inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis.
The nurse identifies this condition as:
A. Phimosis
B. Paraphimosis
C. Priapism
D. Peyronie’s disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Phimosis is the inability to retract the foreskin, which can predispose to
penile cancer. Paraphimosis is when the foreskin is retracted and cannot be
returned, creating a urologic emergency. Priapism is a prolonged painful erection.
Peyronie’s disease involves fibrous plaques in the penis causing curvature.
3. Which genital condition is considered a urological emergency due to risk of
vascular compromise?
A. Phimosis
B. Paraphimosis
C. Balanitis
D. Hydrocele
Correct answer: B
,NSG 3280 Exam 4
Rationale: Paraphimosis causes venous congestion, swelling, and edema of the
glans, making it a urologic emergency. Phimosis is not emergent unless recurrent
infections occur. Balanitis is inflammation of the glans and foreskin. Hydrocele is a
fluid-filled sac around the testis, not emergent.
4. Erectile dysfunction can result from decreased secretion of which
hormone?
A. Testosterone
B. Luteinizing hormone
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Low luteinizing hormone leads to decreased stimulation of
testosterone production, contributing to erectile dysfunction. Testosterone is the
end hormone affected, not the root cause. Estrogen and progesterone are not
primary factors in male erectile function.
5. A penile tumescence test evaluates for which disorder?
A. Testicular torsion
B. Erectile dysfunction
C. Prostate cancer
D. Varicocele
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The penile tumescence test monitors nocturnal erections to distinguish
psychogenic from organic erectile dysfunction. Testicular torsion is diagnosed with
Doppler ultrasound. Prostate cancer requires PSA or biopsy. Varicocele is identified
by physical exam or ultrasound.
6. What cellular damage contributes to erectile dysfunction development?
A. Damage to osteoblasts
B. Damage to vascular endothelial cells
C. Damage to fibroblasts
D. Damage to Schwann cells
,NSG 3280 Exam 4
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Erectile dysfunction is strongly linked to vascular endothelial cell
damage, leading to impaired nitric oxide and vasodilation. Osteoblasts are for
bone formation. Fibroblasts produce connective tissue. Schwann cells affect
peripheral nerve myelination.
7. A hallmark sign of epididymitis is:
A. Scrotal erythema with itching
B. Tenderness along posterior testis
C. Fluid-filled sac around testis
D. Pain relieved by scrotal elevation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Epididymitis presents with tenderness of the epididymis along the
posterior and superior aspects of the testis. Hydrocele is a fluid-filled sac. Scrotal
erythema and itching may suggest fungal infection. Pain relief with elevation
(Prehn’s sign) may be supportive but tenderness is hallmark.
8. A patient with scrotal pain should first be evaluated with which
diagnostic test?
A. CBC
B. Urinalysis
C. Scrotal ultrasound
D. CT scan Correct
answer: B
Rationale: Urinalysis is the first test to identify infection in scrotal pain. Scrotal
ultrasound may follow if torsion is suspected. CBC helps identify systemic
infection but not the first choice. CT scan is not standard for scrotal evaluation.
9. The peak incidence of testicular cancer occurs in:
A. Childhood
B. Late adolescence to early adulthood
, NSG 3280 Exam 4
C. Middle age
D. Elderly males
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Testicular cancer most often develops in late adolescence to early
adulthood. Childhood tumors are rare. Middle-age and elderly onset is uncommon
compared to younger adults.
10. What genital disorder is strongly correlated with testicular cancer?
A. Cryptorchidism
B. Varicocele
C. Hydrocele
D. Epididymitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cryptorchidism (undescended testes) is a strong risk factor for
testicular cancer. Varicocele and hydrocele are benign. Epididymitis is infectious
but not a cancer risk.
11. Most prostate cancers are classified as:
A. Sarcomas
B. Adenocarcinomas
C. Squamous cell carcinomas
D. Transitional cell carcinomas
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The majority of prostate cancers are adenocarcinomas. Sarcomas are
rare connective tissue cancers. Squamous and transitional carcinomas are less
common in the prostate.
12. What is often the first sign of prostate cancer?
A. Dysuria
B. Bone pain
C. Hematuria
D. Nocturia
