NSG 3280 Exam 4: NSG 3280 Exam 4 Practice Questions &
Answers
1) A nurse is educating a group of young adults on risk factors for HPV infection. Which
individual is at greatest risk?
A. A 30-year-old woman in a monogamous marriage
B. A 22-year-old with multiple sexual partners
C. A 40-year-old man with no sexual history
D. A 19-year-old abstinent college student
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The highest prevalence of HPV is in individuals ages 16–25 who have multiple sexual
partners. Option A is lower risk due to a monogamous relationship. Option C is unlikely given no
reported sexual history. Option D is at very low risk due to abstinence.
2) A patient presents with inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis. The nurse
identifies this condition as:
A. Phimosis
B. Paraphimosis
C. Priapism
D. Peyronie’s disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Phimosis is the inability to retract the foreskin, which can predispose to penile cancer.
Paraphimosis is when the foreskin is retracted and cannot be returned, creating a urologic
emergency. Priapism is a prolonged painful erection. Peyronie’s disease involves fibrous plaques
in the penis causing curvature.
3) Which genital condition is considered a urological emergency due to risk of vascular
compromise?
A. Phimosis
B. Paraphimosis
C. Balanitis
D. Hydrocele
,Correct answer: B
Rationale: Paraphimosis causes venous congestion, swelling, and edema of the glans, making it
a urologic emergency. Phimosis is not emergent unless recurrent infections occur. Balanitis is
inflammation of the glans and foreskin. Hydrocele is a fluid-filled sac around the testis, not
emergent.
4) Erectile dysfunction can result from decreased secretion of which hormone?
A. Testosterone
B. Luteinizing hormone
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Low luteinizing hormone leads to decreased stimulation of testosterone production,
contributing to erectile dysfunction. Testosterone is the end hormone affected, not the root
cause. Estrogen and progesterone are not primary factors in male erectile function.
5) A penile tumescence test evaluates for which disorder?
A. Testicular torsion
B. Erectile dysfunction
C. Prostate cancer
D. Varicocele
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The penile tumescence test monitors nocturnal erections to distinguish psychogenic
from organic erectile dysfunction. Testicular torsion is diagnosed with Doppler ultrasound.
Prostate cancer requires PSA or biopsy. Varicocele is identified by physical exam or ultrasound.
6) What cellular damage contributes to erectile dysfunction development?
A. Damage to osteoblasts
B. Damage to vascular endothelial cells
C. Damage to fibroblasts
D. Damage to Schwann cells
Correct answer: B
,Rationale: Erectile dysfunction is strongly linked to vascular endothelial cell damage, leading to
impaired nitric oxide and vasodilation. Osteoblasts are for bone formation. Fibroblasts produce
connective tissue. Schwann cells affect peripheral nerve myelination.
7) A hallmark sign of epididymitis is:
A. Scrotal erythema with itching
B. Tenderness along posterior testisC. Fluid-filled sac around testis
D. Pain relieved by scrotal elevation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Epididymitis presents with tenderness of the epididymis along the posterior and
superior aspects of the testis. Hydrocele is a fluid-filled sac. Scrotal erythema and itching may
suggest fungal infection. Pain relief with elevation (Prehn’s sign) may be supportive but
tenderness is hallmark.
8) A patient with scrotal pain should first be evaluated with which diagnostic test?
A. CBC
B. Urinalysis
C. Scrotal ultrasound
D. CT scan
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Urinalysis is the first test to identify infection in scrotal pain. Scrotal ultrasound may
follow if torsion is suspected. CBC helps identify systemic infection but not the first choice. CT
scan is not standard for scrotal evaluation.
9) The peak incidence of testicular cancer occurs in:
A. Childhood
B. Late adolescence to early adulthood
C. Middle age
D. Elderly males
Correct answer: B
, Rationale: Testicular cancer most often develops in late adolescence to early adulthood.
Childhood tumors are rare. Middle-age and elderly onset is uncommon compared to younger
adults.
10) What genital disorder is strongly correlated with testicular cancer?
A. Cryptorchidism
B. Varicocele
C. Hydrocele
D. Epididymitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cryptorchidism (undescended testes) is a strong risk factor for testicular cancer.
Varicocele and hydrocele are benign. Epididymitis is infectious but not a cancer risk.
11) Most prostate cancers are classified as:
A. Sarcomas
B. Adenocarcinomas
C. Squamous cell carcinomas
D. Transitional cell carcinomas
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The majority of prostate cancers are adenocarcinomas. Sarcomas are rare connective
tissue cancers. Squamous and transitional carcinomas are less common in the prostate.
12) What is often the first sign of prostate cancer?
A. Dysuria
B. Bone pain
C. Hematuria
D. Nocturia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bone pain, especially in the spine, hips, or ribs, is often the first sign due to
metastasis. Dysuria and nocturia are associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia. Hematuria is
nonspecific.
Answers
1) A nurse is educating a group of young adults on risk factors for HPV infection. Which
individual is at greatest risk?
A. A 30-year-old woman in a monogamous marriage
B. A 22-year-old with multiple sexual partners
C. A 40-year-old man with no sexual history
D. A 19-year-old abstinent college student
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The highest prevalence of HPV is in individuals ages 16–25 who have multiple sexual
partners. Option A is lower risk due to a monogamous relationship. Option C is unlikely given no
reported sexual history. Option D is at very low risk due to abstinence.
2) A patient presents with inability to retract the foreskin over the glans penis. The nurse
identifies this condition as:
A. Phimosis
B. Paraphimosis
C. Priapism
D. Peyronie’s disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Phimosis is the inability to retract the foreskin, which can predispose to penile cancer.
Paraphimosis is when the foreskin is retracted and cannot be returned, creating a urologic
emergency. Priapism is a prolonged painful erection. Peyronie’s disease involves fibrous plaques
in the penis causing curvature.
3) Which genital condition is considered a urological emergency due to risk of vascular
compromise?
A. Phimosis
B. Paraphimosis
C. Balanitis
D. Hydrocele
,Correct answer: B
Rationale: Paraphimosis causes venous congestion, swelling, and edema of the glans, making it
a urologic emergency. Phimosis is not emergent unless recurrent infections occur. Balanitis is
inflammation of the glans and foreskin. Hydrocele is a fluid-filled sac around the testis, not
emergent.
4) Erectile dysfunction can result from decreased secretion of which hormone?
A. Testosterone
B. Luteinizing hormone
C. Estrogen
D. Progesterone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Low luteinizing hormone leads to decreased stimulation of testosterone production,
contributing to erectile dysfunction. Testosterone is the end hormone affected, not the root
cause. Estrogen and progesterone are not primary factors in male erectile function.
5) A penile tumescence test evaluates for which disorder?
A. Testicular torsion
B. Erectile dysfunction
C. Prostate cancer
D. Varicocele
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The penile tumescence test monitors nocturnal erections to distinguish psychogenic
from organic erectile dysfunction. Testicular torsion is diagnosed with Doppler ultrasound.
Prostate cancer requires PSA or biopsy. Varicocele is identified by physical exam or ultrasound.
6) What cellular damage contributes to erectile dysfunction development?
A. Damage to osteoblasts
B. Damage to vascular endothelial cells
C. Damage to fibroblasts
D. Damage to Schwann cells
Correct answer: B
,Rationale: Erectile dysfunction is strongly linked to vascular endothelial cell damage, leading to
impaired nitric oxide and vasodilation. Osteoblasts are for bone formation. Fibroblasts produce
connective tissue. Schwann cells affect peripheral nerve myelination.
7) A hallmark sign of epididymitis is:
A. Scrotal erythema with itching
B. Tenderness along posterior testisC. Fluid-filled sac around testis
D. Pain relieved by scrotal elevation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Epididymitis presents with tenderness of the epididymis along the posterior and
superior aspects of the testis. Hydrocele is a fluid-filled sac. Scrotal erythema and itching may
suggest fungal infection. Pain relief with elevation (Prehn’s sign) may be supportive but
tenderness is hallmark.
8) A patient with scrotal pain should first be evaluated with which diagnostic test?
A. CBC
B. Urinalysis
C. Scrotal ultrasound
D. CT scan
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Urinalysis is the first test to identify infection in scrotal pain. Scrotal ultrasound may
follow if torsion is suspected. CBC helps identify systemic infection but not the first choice. CT
scan is not standard for scrotal evaluation.
9) The peak incidence of testicular cancer occurs in:
A. Childhood
B. Late adolescence to early adulthood
C. Middle age
D. Elderly males
Correct answer: B
, Rationale: Testicular cancer most often develops in late adolescence to early adulthood.
Childhood tumors are rare. Middle-age and elderly onset is uncommon compared to younger
adults.
10) What genital disorder is strongly correlated with testicular cancer?
A. Cryptorchidism
B. Varicocele
C. Hydrocele
D. Epididymitis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Cryptorchidism (undescended testes) is a strong risk factor for testicular cancer.
Varicocele and hydrocele are benign. Epididymitis is infectious but not a cancer risk.
11) Most prostate cancers are classified as:
A. Sarcomas
B. Adenocarcinomas
C. Squamous cell carcinomas
D. Transitional cell carcinomas
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The majority of prostate cancers are adenocarcinomas. Sarcomas are rare connective
tissue cancers. Squamous and transitional carcinomas are less common in the prostate.
12) What is often the first sign of prostate cancer?
A. Dysuria
B. Bone pain
C. Hematuria
D. Nocturia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Bone pain, especially in the spine, hips, or ribs, is often the first sign due to
metastasis. Dysuria and nocturia are associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia. Hematuria is
nonspecific.
