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Navle Exam-Small Animals | Questions And 100% Correct Well Detailed Answers|Latest Update!!!!2025/2026|Guaranteed Pass|Graded A+

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NAVLE EXAM-SMALL ANIMALS | QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT WELL DETAILED ANSWERS|LATEST UPDATE!!!!2025/2026|GUARANTEED PASS|GRADED A+

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100% CORRECT WELL DETAILED

UPDATE!!!!2025/2026|GUARANTEED


A 4-year old male neutered Pit Bull mix comes in to your clinic because his owner thinks he
might have gotten into rodenticide while she was out of the house 2 hours ago but is not
sure. You send her to bring back the box of rodenticide and induce emesis by administering
subconjunctival apomorphine. Within 5 minutes, the dog vomits the material (thick bright
turquoise/green). You rinse out the conjunctiva and administer oral activated charcoal. The
owner returns with a box of rodenticide that says brodifacoum. What should you
recommend?



A. Treat the dog with vitamin E and selenium

B. Treat the dog with vitamin K1 for 6 weeks

C. No additional treatment or monitoring is needed

D. Hospitalize the dog for 24 hours to monitor and treat potential neurologic signs

E. Check serum calcium levels today and once weekly for 6 weeks - ANSWER B. Treat
the dog with vitamin K1 for 6 weeks



The bright green vomit confirms the owner's suspicion of rodenticide ingestion because
many rat poisons contain a bright green dye. Dogs that ingest these products may have
bright green vomit or stool. Brodifacoum is a vitamin K antagonist commonly used in
rodenticides. Ingestion of this compound causes hemorrhaging after several days due to a
lack of production of new clotting factors. Treatment for this condition requires vitamin K1
administration for 4-6 weeks.



A 4-year old female spayed mixed Chihuahua presented to the emergency service at
approximately 5am this morning after presumptively being attacked by a coyote. The patient


1

,has a flail chest and it is questionable if there is direct communication between the thoracic
cavity and the environment (it was difficult to examine the dog due to her fractious nature).
Exploration of the wound was performed, and once anesthetized, it was apparent she had a
pneumothorax. The patient must be ventilated, as there is no vacuum present in the chest
for lung expansion to occur. What pressure should the anesthetist not exceed if manually
bagging the patient during anesthesia?



A. 8cm H20

B. 24cm H2O

C. 12cm H2O

D. 20cm H2O - ANSWER D. 20cm H20



Pressures above 20cm H20 may result in barotrauma. In an otherwise healthy patient it is
not recommended to exceed this pressure. In patients with chronic atelectasis, anesthetists
will be much more apprehensive about over ventilating or ventilating the lungs too quickly,
as acute expansion can trigger re-expansion pulmonary edema, which may then lead to
acute respiratory distress syndrome and death.



A two-day-old pup has a GGT level of 500 times the adult upper reference range. Which one
of the following choices is the most likely interpretation?



A - Suggestive of a congenital liver shunt

B - Caused by traumatic placental detachment

C - Associated with neonatal cholestasis

D - Related to bone development

E - Due to colostrum absorption - ANSWER E - Due to colostrum absorption



Very high GGT levels are seen with colostrum absorption. In newborn pups + lambs + calves,
an increase in GGT up to 1000x is normal when they receive high levels of colostrum from
the dam. High levels of GGT are produced in the mammary epithelium during lactation.
When evaluating bloodwork, reference ranges specific for the age of the patient should be
utilized.


2

, Your client is pregnant and is worried about acquiring toxoplasmosis from her cat. What do
you advise?



A. Have a housemate empty the litter box daily as a simple precaution to prevent infection
as it takes 1-3 days for passed oocysts in the stool to sporulate into an infective form.

B. Submit toxoplasmosis titers from the cat. A IgG titer of 1:64 or greater suggests recent or
active infection that could pose a danger.

C. Submit toxoplasmosis titers from the cat. A positive cat infected with toxoplasmosis can
shed multiple times in its lifetime and pose a zoonotic risk.

D. Toxoplasmosis titer should be performed on the owner by a human physician. A positive
titer indicates antibodies to the organism that will prevent infection in the first trimester. A
negative titer indicates she should remove her cats from her environment. -
ANSWER A. Have a housemate empty the litter box daily as a simple precaution to
prevent infection as it takes 1-3 days for passed oocysts in the stool to sporulate into an
infective form.



Toxoplasmosis gondii is a protozoal organism. The cat is the definitive host; the entire life
cycle of the organism can be completed within this host. Most cats become infected when
they consume an exposed rodent with bradyzoites encysted in their tissues. Only recently
infected cats generally shed oocysts in their stool, and cats typically only shed these oocysts
for 1-2 weeks. Most cats will only have one shedding episode in their lifetime.A IgM (not
IgG) titer of 1:64 or greater suggests recent or active infection and that cat is at risk of
shedding oocysts in their stools. Oocysts are not infective until they sporulate. This process
takes > 24 hours, so emptying the litter box daily is advised, preferably by someone who is
not pregnant.If an owner has owned cats for a long while, it is possible that they may have
previously been exposed and therefore have mounted an immune response to the organism.
If so, it may be advisable to test for Toxoplasma antibody titers in the owner. A sufficient
antibody titer will mean the client is protected from infection during the first trimester.



A 3-year old castrated male Doberman Pinscher presents for acute onset non-productive
vomiting of 3 hours duration. On exam, the patient is extremely lethargic, tachycardic, has
weak pulses and a distended abdomen. Following standard initial emergency treatment for
suspected gastric dilation and volvulus, you would confirm the diagnosis with what imaging
procedure?


3

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