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NP Exam Coach Certification Test Prep Questions with Accurate Answers Graded A+.

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Q1. What is the most common side effect of olanzapine/Zyprexa? A. Akathisia B. Dystonia C. Weight gain D. Tardive dyskinesia - Answer C. Weight gain Q2. Which organ does depakote cause toxicity, and what symptoms would you expect to see? Labs to run? A. Liver, elevated liver enzymes B. Kidney, hematuria C. Heart, arrhythmias D. Lungs, pleural effusion - Answer A. Liver, elevated liver enzymes Q3. What is the difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics? A. Atypical antipsychotics have fewer side effects B. Typical antipsychotics have a lower risk of weight gain C. Atypical antipsychotics selectively block dopamine receptors (5HT2A specific) D. Typical antipsychotics have a higher risk of extrapyramidal symptoms - Answer C. Atypical antipsychotics selectively block dopamine receptors (5HT2A specific) Q4. How should you respond to delusions in a schizophrenic patient? A. Disprove the delusions B. Ignore the delusions C. Notify the authorities and potential victim of harmful delusions, and do not 1 disagree with the delusion. D. Increase the dosage of antipsychotic medication - Answer C. Notify the authorities and potential victim of harmful delusions. Do not 1 disagree with the delusion. Q5. What are MOST LIKELY possible scenarios that place patients at risk of a hypertensive crisis? A. Combining SSRIs and TCAs B. Using MAOIs with tyramine-rich foods

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2025-2026 NP Exam Coach
Certification Test Prep Questions with
Accurate Answers Graded A+.
Q1. What is the most common side effect of olanzapine/Zyprexa?

A. Akathisia

B. Dystonia

C. Weight gain

D. Tardive dyskinesia - Answer C. Weight gain



Q2. Which organ does depakote cause toxicity, and what symptoms would you expect to see?
Labs to run?

A. Liver, elevated liver enzymes

B. Kidney, hematuria

C. Heart, arrhythmias

D. Lungs, pleural effusion - Answer A. Liver, elevated liver enzymes



Q3. What is the difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics?

A. Atypical antipsychotics have fewer side effects

B. Typical antipsychotics have a lower risk of weight gain

C. Atypical antipsychotics selectively block dopamine receptors (5HT2A specific)

D. Typical antipsychotics have a higher risk of extrapyramidal symptoms - Answer C. Atypical
antipsychotics selectively block dopamine receptors (5HT2A specific)



Q4. How should you respond to delusions in a schizophrenic patient?

A. Disprove the delusions

B. Ignore the delusions

C. Notify the authorities and potential victim of harmful delusions, and do not 1 disagree with
the delusion.

D. Increase the dosage of antipsychotic medication - Answer C. Notify the authorities and
potential victim of harmful delusions. Do not 1 disagree with the delusion.

,D. Lithium and ACE inhibitors - Answer B. Using MAOIs with tyramine-rich foods



Q6. Which of these medications has the least risk of weight gain?

A. Olanzapine

B. Quetiapine

C. Geodon

D. Risperidone - Answer C. Geodon



What is the primary treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS)?

A. Bromocriptine

B. Dantrolene and Bromocriptine

C. Haloperidol

D. Lorazepam - Answer B. Dantrolene and Bromocriptine



Q8. What is the primary cause of schizophrenia?

A. Inadequate synapse formation

B. Excessive pruning of synapses

C. Intrauterine insult (drugs/toxin/viral agent/malnutrition/substance use, mental illness, o2
deprivation)

D. All of the above - Answer D. All of the above



Q9. What is the primary advantage of SSRIs for the treatment of depression?

A. Rapid onset of action

B. Lower risk of sexual side effects

C. Safer in overdose

D. Greater efficacy in treating severe depression - Answer C. Safer in overdose



Q10. What medication should be avoided for patients with a seizure history or an eating
disorder?

A. Tegretol

B. Lamotrigine

C. Wellbutrin

,A. SSRIs

B. SNRIs and TCAs can be used

C. TCAs

D. Atypical antipsychotics - Answer B. SNRIs and TCAs can be used



Q12. What birth defect can be caused by depakote?

A. Spina bifida

B. Cleft lip

C. Heart defects

D. Anencephaly - Answer A. Spina bifida



Q1. If a patient is experiencing severe depression, assess for?

A. SI

B. HI

C. Plan

D. Hallucinations - Answer B. HI

C. Plan



Q2. What does a high MMSE score mean?

A. Good

B. Bad

C. Average

D. Poor - Answer A. Good



Q3. What is tangential thinking?

A. Arriving at the point directly

B. Never arriving at the point

C. Providing unnecessary details

D. Organizing thoughts in a systematic way - Answer B. Never arriving at the point



Q4. What is circumstantial thinking?

, Q6. Read the following statements carefully:

Statement I: Reflective practice is a process of reflection and critical thinking about one's own
practice, and is not related to feedback.

Statement II: The industry vs inferiority stage of development occurs in early childhood.

Statement III: The intimacy vs isolation stage of development occurs in adolescence.

Which of the above Statement(s) is/are correct?

A. I only.

B. All Statements are Incorrect.

C. III only.

D. All Statements are Correct. - Answer B. All Statements are Incorrect.

Erikson's psychosocial theory.

Stage 1: Trust vs. Mistrust (Infancy from birth to 18 months)

Stage 2: Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt (Toddler years from 18 months to three years)

Stage 3: Initiative vs. Guilt (Preschool years from three to five)

Stage 4: Industry vs. Inferiority (Middle school years from six to 11)

Stage 5: Identity vs. Confusion (Teen years from 12 to 18)

Stage 6: Intimacy vs. Isolation (Young adult years from 18 to 40)

Stage 7: Generativity vs. Stagnation (Middle age from 40 to 65)

Stage 8: Integrity vs. Despair (Older adulthood from 65 to death)

Reflective practice includes both careful observation of patient's responses, and the use of such
data to consider choices that might lead to greater attunement and more successful therapy.



Read the following statements carefully:

Statement I: MMSE scale score of 24 indicates severe cognitive deficit. Statement II: SLUM scale
score of 22 indicates normal cognitive function. Statement III: HAM-D scores of 25-30 indicate
severe depression.

2 Which of the above Statement(s) is/are correct:

A. I only.

B. I and III only.

C. III only.

D. All Statements are Correct. - Answer C. III only.

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