ATI / HESI / Standardized Nursing
Assessments ATI RN Concept-Based
Assessment Level 1 — Master Review &
Preparation Guide 2025/2026 <Latest
Version>
Nursing Fundamentals & Safety (Questions 1-25)
1. What is the correct order of the nursing process?
A) Diagnosis, Planning, Assessment, Implementation, Evaluation
B) Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation ✓
C) Assessment, Planning, Diagnosis, Evaluation, Implementation
D) Diagnosis, Assessment, Planning, Evaluation, Implementation
2. A client with dysphagia is at highest risk for which complication?
A) Constipation
B) Aspiration ✓
C) Urinary Retention
D) Pressure Injury
3. The primary purpose of placing a client in the prone position is to:
A) Promote venous return
B) Prevent flexion contractures of the hips and knees ✓
C) Facilitate drainage from the mouth
D) Promote lung expansion
4. When transferring a client from a bed to a chair, the nurse should first:
A) Apply a gait belt.
B) Lock the wheels on the bed and chair. ✓
C) Assess the client's strength.
D) Elevate the head of the bed.
5. Which action by a new graduate nurse demonstrates the principle of maintaining sterility?
A) Holding sterile objects above the waist level ✓
B) Placing a sterile package on the edge of the table
,C) Turning your back to a sterile field
D) Allowing unsterile personnel to reach over the field
6. The most effective nursing action to prevent the spread of infection is:
A) Wearing a gown.
B) Hand hygiene. ✓
C) Putting on gloves.
D) Disinfecting all surfaces.
7. A client has a "Do Not Resuscitate" (DNR) order. The nurse understands this means:
A) No medical treatment can be provided.
B) Only comfort measures are to be given.
C) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is not initiated in the event of cardiac arrest. ✓
D) The client is refusing all food and medication.
8. When documenting a client's fall, the nurse's note should be:
A) Subjective and interpretive.
B) Objective, factual, and complete. ✓
C) Brief to protect confidentiality.
D) Written in a way that minimizes liability.
9. The first step a nurse should take when discovering a fire is:
A) Activate the fire alarm.
B) Contain the fire by closing doors.
C) Rescue and remove clients from immediate danger. ✓
D) Use the nearest fire extinguisher.
10. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A) A client with diabetes whose blood glucose is 180 mg/dL.
B) A client with heart failure who has 2+ pitting edema in the ankles.
C) A post-op client whose oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. ✓
D) A client with a urinary tract infection complaining of burning on urination.
11. Informed consent for a surgical procedure must be signed by:
A) The attending physician.
B) The client's next of kin.
C) The competent client. ✓
D) The nurse witnessing the signature.
12. A client is on contact precautions for a draining wound. The nurse must:
A) Wear a gown and gloves when entering the room. ✓
,B) Place the client in a negative pressure room.
C) Wear an N95 respirator at all times.
D) Restrict all visitors from seeing the client.
13. The priority assessment for a client receiving a blood transfusion is:
A) Lung sounds.
B) Urine output.
C) Signs of a transfusion reaction. ✓
D) Blood pressure.
14. When delegating a task to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), the nurse is
responsible for:
A) Ensuring the UAP understands the task and its reporting parameters. ✓
B) Completing the task if the UAP is unable to do so.
C) Supervising every aspect of the UAP's performance.
D) Delegating only bed-making and vital signs.
15. A client's Advance Directive indicates they do not want a feeding tube. The nurse's action
should be to:
A) Follow the family's current wishes.
B) Honor the client's Advance Directive. ✓
C) Ask the provider to talk the client out of it.
D) Document that the client is non-compliant.
16. The best method to confirm the correct placement of a nasogastric (NG) tube is:
A) Auscultating over the epigastrium while injecting air.
B) Measuring the pH of the aspirated fluid. ✓
C) Asking the client to speak.
D) Placing the end of the tube in water to check for bubbling.
17. A client is on strict bed rest. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT), the nurse should
encourage:
A) Isometric exercises and ankle pumps. ✓
B) Limiting fluid intake.
C) Massaging the calves vigorously.
D) Applying heat to the lower extremities.
18. The "R" in the RACE fire response acronym stands for:
A) Run.
B) Rescue. ✓
, C) Respond.
D) Restrict.
19. A client with a history of falls attempts to get out of bed without assistance. The nurse's
initial response should be to:
A) Apply restraints.
B) Use a bed alarm. ✓
C) Scold the client for being unsafe.
D) Assign a sitter to watch the client constantly.
20. When communicating with a client who speaks a different language, the nurse should:
A) Speak loudly and slowly.
B) Use a professional medical interpreter. ✓
C) Rely on a family member to translate.
D) Use hand gestures and pictures only.
21. The primary purpose of a root cause analysis after a sentinel event is to:
A) Assign blame to the responsible staff member.
B) Identify system failures to prevent future errors. ✓
C) Document the event for legal purposes.
D) Discipline the involved personnel.
22. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication. The dose is 125 mg, and the available
concentration is 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
A) 1.25 mL
B) 2.5 mL ✓
C) 5 mL
D) 6.25 mL
23. Which vital sign is considered the fifth vital sign?
A) Oxygen Saturation
B) Pain ✓
C) Level of Consciousness
D) Capillary Refill
24. A client has a documented allergy to penicillin. The nurse should be most concerned about
an order for which antibiotic?
A) Erythromycin
B) Cephalexin ✓
Assessments ATI RN Concept-Based
Assessment Level 1 — Master Review &
Preparation Guide 2025/2026 <Latest
Version>
Nursing Fundamentals & Safety (Questions 1-25)
1. What is the correct order of the nursing process?
A) Diagnosis, Planning, Assessment, Implementation, Evaluation
B) Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, Implementation, Evaluation ✓
C) Assessment, Planning, Diagnosis, Evaluation, Implementation
D) Diagnosis, Assessment, Planning, Evaluation, Implementation
2. A client with dysphagia is at highest risk for which complication?
A) Constipation
B) Aspiration ✓
C) Urinary Retention
D) Pressure Injury
3. The primary purpose of placing a client in the prone position is to:
A) Promote venous return
B) Prevent flexion contractures of the hips and knees ✓
C) Facilitate drainage from the mouth
D) Promote lung expansion
4. When transferring a client from a bed to a chair, the nurse should first:
A) Apply a gait belt.
B) Lock the wheels on the bed and chair. ✓
C) Assess the client's strength.
D) Elevate the head of the bed.
5. Which action by a new graduate nurse demonstrates the principle of maintaining sterility?
A) Holding sterile objects above the waist level ✓
B) Placing a sterile package on the edge of the table
,C) Turning your back to a sterile field
D) Allowing unsterile personnel to reach over the field
6. The most effective nursing action to prevent the spread of infection is:
A) Wearing a gown.
B) Hand hygiene. ✓
C) Putting on gloves.
D) Disinfecting all surfaces.
7. A client has a "Do Not Resuscitate" (DNR) order. The nurse understands this means:
A) No medical treatment can be provided.
B) Only comfort measures are to be given.
C) Cardiopulmonary resuscitation is not initiated in the event of cardiac arrest. ✓
D) The client is refusing all food and medication.
8. When documenting a client's fall, the nurse's note should be:
A) Subjective and interpretive.
B) Objective, factual, and complete. ✓
C) Brief to protect confidentiality.
D) Written in a way that minimizes liability.
9. The first step a nurse should take when discovering a fire is:
A) Activate the fire alarm.
B) Contain the fire by closing doors.
C) Rescue and remove clients from immediate danger. ✓
D) Use the nearest fire extinguisher.
10. Which client should the nurse assess first?
A) A client with diabetes whose blood glucose is 180 mg/dL.
B) A client with heart failure who has 2+ pitting edema in the ankles.
C) A post-op client whose oxygen saturation is 89% on room air. ✓
D) A client with a urinary tract infection complaining of burning on urination.
11. Informed consent for a surgical procedure must be signed by:
A) The attending physician.
B) The client's next of kin.
C) The competent client. ✓
D) The nurse witnessing the signature.
12. A client is on contact precautions for a draining wound. The nurse must:
A) Wear a gown and gloves when entering the room. ✓
,B) Place the client in a negative pressure room.
C) Wear an N95 respirator at all times.
D) Restrict all visitors from seeing the client.
13. The priority assessment for a client receiving a blood transfusion is:
A) Lung sounds.
B) Urine output.
C) Signs of a transfusion reaction. ✓
D) Blood pressure.
14. When delegating a task to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), the nurse is
responsible for:
A) Ensuring the UAP understands the task and its reporting parameters. ✓
B) Completing the task if the UAP is unable to do so.
C) Supervising every aspect of the UAP's performance.
D) Delegating only bed-making and vital signs.
15. A client's Advance Directive indicates they do not want a feeding tube. The nurse's action
should be to:
A) Follow the family's current wishes.
B) Honor the client's Advance Directive. ✓
C) Ask the provider to talk the client out of it.
D) Document that the client is non-compliant.
16. The best method to confirm the correct placement of a nasogastric (NG) tube is:
A) Auscultating over the epigastrium while injecting air.
B) Measuring the pH of the aspirated fluid. ✓
C) Asking the client to speak.
D) Placing the end of the tube in water to check for bubbling.
17. A client is on strict bed rest. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT), the nurse should
encourage:
A) Isometric exercises and ankle pumps. ✓
B) Limiting fluid intake.
C) Massaging the calves vigorously.
D) Applying heat to the lower extremities.
18. The "R" in the RACE fire response acronym stands for:
A) Run.
B) Rescue. ✓
, C) Respond.
D) Restrict.
19. A client with a history of falls attempts to get out of bed without assistance. The nurse's
initial response should be to:
A) Apply restraints.
B) Use a bed alarm. ✓
C) Scold the client for being unsafe.
D) Assign a sitter to watch the client constantly.
20. When communicating with a client who speaks a different language, the nurse should:
A) Speak loudly and slowly.
B) Use a professional medical interpreter. ✓
C) Rely on a family member to translate.
D) Use hand gestures and pictures only.
21. The primary purpose of a root cause analysis after a sentinel event is to:
A) Assign blame to the responsible staff member.
B) Identify system failures to prevent future errors. ✓
C) Document the event for legal purposes.
D) Discipline the involved personnel.
22. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication. The dose is 125 mg, and the available
concentration is 250 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the nurse administer?
A) 1.25 mL
B) 2.5 mL ✓
C) 5 mL
D) 6.25 mL
23. Which vital sign is considered the fifth vital sign?
A) Oxygen Saturation
B) Pain ✓
C) Level of Consciousness
D) Capillary Refill
24. A client has a documented allergy to penicillin. The nurse should be most concerned about
an order for which antibiotic?
A) Erythromycin
B) Cephalexin ✓
