Physio-Patho Basis of Adv Nsg (NU 545) Unit Chapters 1-10 Quizzes : Answered Latest 2025-26 - University of South Alabama.

Physio-Patho Basis of Adv Nsg (NU 545) Unit Chapters 1-10 Quizzes : Answered Latest 2025-26 - University of South Alabama. Unit 1 Study Questions Chapter 1 1. Which statement best describes the cellular function of metabolic absorption? a. Cells can produce proteins b. Cells can secrete digestive enzymes c. Cells can take in and use nutrients d. Cells can synthesize fats 2. Most of the cells genetic info, including RNA and DNA, is contained in the: a. Mitochondria b. Ribosome c. Nucleolus d. Lysosome 3. Which component of the cell produces hydrogen peroxide (H2O2) by using oxygen to remove hydrogen atoms from specific substrates in an oxidate reaction? a. Lysosomes b. Peroxisomes c. Ribosomes d. Oxyhydrosomes 4. Which cell component is capable of cellular autodigestion when it is released during cell injury a. Ribosome b. Gogli complex c. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum d. Lysosomes 5. What is the sequence of steps in the development of a digestive enzyme by the pancreas cells from the initial transcription to the release of the cell? a. The enzyme is transcribed from DNA by RNA in the nucleus, proceeds to the ribosome for synthesis, and is transported in a secretory vesicle to the cell membrane 6. During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA synthesized a. G1 b. S c. G2 d. M 7. What organic compound facilitates transportation across cell membranes by acting as receptors, transport channels for electrolytes, and enzymes to drive active pumps? a. Lipids b. Proteases c. Proteins d. Carbs 8. Active transport occurs across which type of membranes? a. Membranes that have a higher concentration of the solute on the outside of the cell (diffusion)b. Membranes that are semi-permeable to water and small electrically uncharged molecules c. Membranes that have receptors that are capable of binding with the substances to be transported d. Membranes that have a cell membrane that is hydrophobic rather than hydrophilic 9. Which method of transport uses transmembrane proteins with receptors with a high degree of specificity for the substance being transported? a. Active b. Mediated—mediated transport (passive and active) involved integral or transmembrane proteins with receptors having a high degree of specificity for the substance being transported c. Transmembranous d. Passive 10. The movement of fluid across the arterial end of capillary membranes into the interstitial fluid surrounding the capillary is an example of which fluid movement process? a. Hydrostatic pressure b. Osmosis c. Diffusion d. Active transport 11. Why is osmolality preferred over osmolarity as the measurement of osmotic activity in the clinical assessment of individuals? a. Plasma contains sodium and chloride, which influence the volume of solution b. Volume affects perfusion more than the weight of solutes c. More of the weight of plasma is influenced by solutes, such as protein and glucose, rather than by water d. Osmotic activity depends on the concentration of solutes present in plasma, such as proteins and glucose 12. A patient who has diarrhea receives a 3% saline solution intravenously to replace sodium and chloride lost in the stool. What effect will this fluid replacement have on cells? a. Become hydrated b. Swell or burst c. Shrink d. Divide 13. The transport of glucose from blood to the cell is accomplished by which process? a. Passive mediated transport (facilitated diffusion) 14. Potassium and sodium are transported across plasma membranes by: a. ATP 15. All cells are capable of what process? a. Excretion b. Movement c. Metabolic absorption d. Continuous division 16. What are the major chemical components of the cell membranes? a. Lipidsb. Sodium ions c. Carbohydrates d. DNA e. Proteins 17. Which cells lose their ability to replicate and divide? a. Intestines b. Nerves c. Skin d. Lens of the eye e. Skeletal muscle 18. Which statements are TRUE concerning the process of facilitated diffusion? (SATA) a. Facilitated diffusion is also referred to as passive mediated transport b. This process expends no metabolic energy c. Moving solute molecules through cellular membranes are involved in this process d. Movement up a concentration gradient is necessary e. Facilitated diffusion is the primary means for water transport 19. Passive transport is dependent on? (SATA) a. Semipermeable barrier membrane b. The process of osmosis c. Diffusion as a driving force d. A living host e. Hydrostatic pressure 20. What is the primary function of proteins? a. Proteins are binding units b. Proteins are transport channels c. Proteins are ribonucleoproteins d. Proteins provide cell surface markers e. Proteins are chemical reaction catalysts Chapter 2 1. Lead causes damage within the cell by interfering with the action of: a. Sodium and chloride b. Potassium c. Calcium d. ATP 2. Which statement is a description of the characteristics of apoptosis? a. Programmed cell death of scattered, single cells b. Characterized by swelling of the nucleus and cytoplasm c. Unpredictable patterns of cell death d. Results in benign malignancies 3. Lead poisoning affects the nervous system by a. Interfering with the function of neurotransmitters b. Inhibiting the production of myelin around nerves c. Increasing the resting membrane potentiald. Altering the transport of potassium into cells 4. Carbon monoxide causes tissue damage by: a. Competing with carbon dioxide so that it cannot be excreted b. Binding to hemoglobin so that it cannot carry oxygen c. Destroying the chemical bonds of hemoglobin so it cannot carry oxygen d. Removing iron from hemoglobin so it cannot carry oxygen 5. Acute alcoholism mainly affects which body system? a. Hepatic b. GI c. Renal d. CNS 6. During cell injury caused by hypoxia, an increase in osmotic pressure occurs within the cell because: a. Plasma proteins enter the cell b. The ATPase-driven pump is stronger than hypoxia c. Sodium chloride enters the cell d. An influx of glucose occurs through the injured cell membranes 7. Which statement is true regarding the difference between subdural hematoma and epidural hematoma? a. Subdural hematoma is often the result of shaken baby syndrome, whereas an epidural hematoma rapidly forms as a result of a skull fracture 8. After ovulation, the uterine endometrial cells divide under the influence of estrogen. This process is an example of hormonal: a. Hyperplasia b. Dysplasia c. Hypertrophy d. Anaplasia 9. The abnormal proliferation of cells in response to excessive hormonal stimulation is called: a. Dysplasia b. Pathologic dysplasia c. Hyperplasia d. Pathologic hyperplasia 10. Removal of part of the liver leads to the remaining liver cells undergoing compensatory a. Atrophy b. Metaplasia c. Hyperplasia d. Dysplasia 11. What is the single most common cause of cellular injury? a. Hypoxic injury b. Chemical injury c. Infectious injury d. Genetic injury? 12. During cell injury caused by hypoxia, sodium and water move into the cell because a. Potassium moves out of the cell, and potassium and sodium are inversely relatedb. The pump that transports sodium out of the cell cannot function because of a decrease in ATP levels c. The osmotic pressure is increased, which pulls additional sodium across the membrane d. Oxygen is not available to bind with sodium to maintain it outside of the cell 13. In decompression sickness, emboli are formed by bubbles of a. Oxygen b. Nitrogen c. Carbon monoxide d. Hydrogen 14. Which is an effect of ionizing radiation exposure a. Respiratory distress b. Sun intolerance c. DNA aberrations d. Death 15. What is an example of compensatory hyperplasia? a. Hepatic cells increase cell division after part of the liver is excised b. Skeletal muscles atrophy as a result of paralysis c. The heart muscle enlarges as a result of HTN Chapter 3 1. Infants are most susceptible to significant losses in total body water because of an infants: a. High body surface to body size ration b. Slow metabolic rate c. Kidneys are not mature enough to counter fluid losses d. Inability to communicate adequately when he or she is thirsty 2. Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because a. Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling b. The metabolic rate of obese adults is slower than the rate of lean adults c. The rate of UOP of obese adults is higher than the rate of output of lean adults d. The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively 3. A patients blood gases reveal the following findings: pH 7.3, bicarb 27, carbon dioxide 58 a. Respiratory alkalosis b. Metabolic acidosis c. Respiratory acidosis d. Metabolic alkalosis 4. Water movement between the intracellular fluid compartment and the extracellular fluid compartment is primarily a function of: a. Osmotic forces b. Plasma oncotic pressure c. ADH d. Hydrostatic forces 5. Vomiting induced metabolic alkalosis, resulting in the loss of chloride, causes a. Retained sodium to bind with chloride b. Hydrogen to move into the cell and exchange with potassium to maintain cation balancec. Retention of bicarb to maintain the anion balance d. Hypoventilation to compensate for the metabolic alkalosis 6. The pathophysiologic process of edema is related to which mechanism? a. Sodium depletion b. Decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure c. Increased plasma oncotic pressure d. Lymphatic obstruction 7. Insulin is used to treat hyperkalemia because it: a. Stimulates sodium to be removed from the cell in exchange for potassium b. Binds to potassium to remove it through the kidneys c. Transports potassium from the blood to the cell along with glucose d. Breaks down the chemical components of potassium, causing it to be no longer effective 8. A major determinant of the resting membrane potential is necessary for the transmission of nerve impulses is the ratio between a. Intracellular and extracellular NA b. Intracellular and extracellular K c. Intracellular Na and extracellular K d. Intracellular K and extracellular NA 9. During acidosis, the body compensates for the increase in serum hydrogen ions by shifting hydrogen ions into the cell in exchange for which electrolyte? a. Oxygen b. Sodium c. Potassium—hydrogen ions shift into cells in exchange for intracellular fluid potassium; hyperkalemia and acidosis therefore often occur together. d. Magnesium 10. Causes of hyperkalemia include: a. Hyperparathyroidism and malnutrition b. Vomiting and diarrhea c. Renal failure and Addison disease d. Hyperaldosteronism and Cushing disease 11. In hyperkalemia, what change occurs to the cells’ resting potential a. Hyperpolarization b. Hyperexcitability c. Depolarization d. Repolarization 12. Causes of hypocalcemia include: (SATA) a. Repeated blood administration b. Pancreatitis c. Decreased reabsorption of calcium d. Hyperparathyroidism e. Kidney stones 13. The electrolyte imbalance called hyponatremia exhibits which clinical manifestations? (SATA) a. HA b. Seizuresc. Paranoia d. Confusion e. Lethargy 14. The electrolyte imbalance hypercalcemia exhibits which clinical manifestations? (SATA) a. Diarrhea b. Calcium based kidney stones c. ECG showing narrow T waves d. Lethargy e. Bradycardia 15. The electrolyte imbalance hypokalemia exhibits which clinical manifestations? a. Paralytic ileus b. Sinus bradycardia c. Atrioventricular block d. Dry mucous membranes e. Tetany 16. A third of the body’s fluid is contained in the extracellular interstitial fluid spaces that include: (2/3 of bodys water is in the intracellular fluid (ICF) compartment, and 1/3 is in the ECF compartments. 2 main ECF compartments are the interstitial fluid and the intravascular fluid such as blood plasma. Interstitial ECF compartments include lymph/transcellular fluids—such as synovial, intestinal, biliary, hepatic, pancreatic, CSF; sweat; urine; and pleural, synovial, peritoneal, pericardial, and intraocular fluids a. Urine b. Intraocular fluids c. Lymph d. Blood plasma e. Sweat 17. An imbalance of potassium can produce which dysfunctions? a. Weakness skeletal muscles b. Cardiac dysrhythmia c. Smooth muscle atony d. Visual impairment e. Hearing loss Chapter 7 1. Which action is a purpose of the inflammatory process? a. To provide specific responses toward antigens b. To lyse cell membranes of organisms c. To prevent infection of the injured tissue d. To create immunity against subsequent tissue injury 2. How do surfactant proteins A-D provide innate resistance? a. Initiate the complement cascade b. Promote phagocytosis c. Secrete mucus d. Synthesize lysosomes3. Which secretion is a first line of defense against pathogen invasion that involves antibacterial and antifungal fatty acids, as well as lactic acid? a. Optic tears b. Oral saliva c. Sweat glad perspiration d. Sebaceous gland sebum 4. Which bacterium grows in the intestines after prolonged antibiotic therapy? a. Lactobacillus b. Candida albicans c. Clostridium difficile d. Helicobacter pylori 5. What causes the edema that occurs during the inflammatory process? a. Vasodilation of blood vessels b. Increased capillary permeability c. Endothelial cell expansion d. Emigration of neutrophils 6. What process causes heat and redness to occur during the inflammatory response? a. Vasodilation of blood vessels b. Platelet aggregation c. Decreased capillary permeability d. Endothelial cell contraction 7. What does the activation of the classical pathway begin with? a. Viruses b. Antigen-antibody complexes c. Mast cells d. Macrophages 8. What plasma protein system forms a fibrinous meshwork at an inflamed site? a. Complement b. Coagulation c. Kinin d. Fibrinolysis 9. Which component of the plasma protein system tags pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages? a. Complement cascade b. Coagulation system c. Kinin system d. Immune system 10. What is the vascular effect of histamine released from mast cells? a. Platelet adhesion b. Initiation of the clotting cascade c. Vasodilation d. Increased endothelial adhesiveness 11. What is the outcome of the complement cascade? a. Activation of the clotting cascadeb. Prevention of the spread of infection to adjacent tissues c. Inactivation of chemical mediators such as histamine d. Lysis of bacterial cell membranes 12. What is the function of opsonization related to the complement cascade? a. To tag pathogenic microorganisms for destruction by neutrophils and macrophages b. To process pathogenic microorganisms so that activated lymphocytes can be created for acquired immunity c. To destroy glycoprotein cell membranes of pathogenic microorganisms d. To promote anaphylactic activity, resulting in mast cell degranulation 13. In the coagulation (clotting) cascade, the intrinsic and extrinsic pathways converge at which factor? a. XII b. VII c. X d. V 14. Which chemical interacts among all plasma protein systems by degrading blood clots, activating complement, and activating the Hageman factor? a. Kallikrein b. Histamine c. Bradykinin d. Plasmin 15. How does the chemotactic factor affect the inflammatory process a. By causing vasodilation around the inflamed area b. By stimulating smooth muscle contraction in the inflamed area c. By directing leukocytes to the inflamed area d. By producing edema around the inflamed area 16. What effect does the process of histamine binding to the histamine-2 (H2) receptor have on inflammation? a. Inhibition b. Activation c. Acceleration d. Termination 17. Frequently when H1 and H2 receptors are located on the same cells, they act in what fashion? a. Synergistically b. Additively c. Antagonistically d. Agonistically 18. Some older adults have impaired inflammation and wound healing because of which problem? a. Circulatory system cannot adequately perfuse tissue b. Complement and chemotaxis are deficient c. Underlying chronic illness(es) exist d. Number of mast cells is insufficient 19. Which chemical mediator derived from mast cells retracts endothelial cells to increase vascular permeability and to cause leukocyte adhesion to endothelial cells?a. Chemokines b. Prostaglandin E c. Platelet-activating factor d. Bradykinin 20. What is the inflammatory effect of nitric oxide (NO)? a. Increased capillary permeability, and causes pain b. Increases neutrophil chemotaxis and platelet aggregation c. Causes smooth muscle contraction and fever d. Decreases mast cell function, and decreases platelet aggregation 21. What is the correct sequence in phagocytosis? a. Engulfment, recognition, fusion, destruction b. Fusion, engulfment, recognition, destruction c. Recognition, engulfment, fusion, destruction d. Engulfment, fusion, recognition, destruction 22. When considering white blood cell differentials, acute inflammatory reactions are related to elevations of which leukocyte? a. Monocytes b. Eosinophils c. Neutrophils d. Basophils 23. In the later stages of an inflammatory response, which phagocytic cell is prominent? a. Neutrophils b. Monocytes c. Chemokines d. Eosinophils 24. In regulating vascular mediators released from mast cells, the role of eosinophils is the release what? a. Arylsulfatase B, which stimulates the formation of B lymphocytes b. Histaminase, which limits the effects of histamine during acute inflammation c. Lysosomal enzymes, which activate mast cell degranulation during acute inflammation d. Immunoglobulin E., which defends the body against parasites 25. What is a role of a natural killer (NK) cell? a. Irritation of the complement cascade b. Elimination of malignant cells c. Binding tightly to antigens d. Proliferation after immunization with antigen 26. Which cytokine is produced and released from virally infected host cells? a. IL-1 b. IL-10 c. TNF d. IFN 27. Which manifestation of inflammation is systemic? a. Formation of exudates b. Fever and leukocytesc. Redness and heat d. Pain and edema 28. The acute inflammation response is characterized by fever that is produced by the hypothalamus being affected by what? a. Endogenous pyrogens b. Bacterial endotoxin c. Antigen-antibody complexes d. Exogenous pyrogens 29. What occurs during the process of repair after tissue damage? a. Nonfunctioning scar tissue replaces destroyed tissue b. Regeneration occurs, the original tissue is replaced c. Resolution occurs, tissue is regenerated d. Epithelization replaces destroyed tissue 30. What is the role of fibroblasts during the reconstructive phase of wound healing? a. Generate new capillaries from vascular endothelial cells around the wound b. Establish connections between neighboring cells and contract their fibers c. Synthesize and secrete collagen and the connective tissue proteins d. Provide enzymes that debride the wound bed of dead cells 31. During the process of endocytosis, the phagosome step results in: a. Microorganisms are ingested b. Microorganisms are killed and digested c. Phagocytes recognize and adhere to bacteria d. An intracellular phagocytic vacuole is formed 32. When cellular damage occurs and regeneration is minor with no significant complications, the process of returning the cells to preinjury function is referred to as: a. Restoration b. Resolution c. Regrowth d. Replacement 33. Newborns often have deficiencies in collectin-like proteins, making them more susceptible to what kind of infection? a. Cardiac b. Urinary c. Respiratory d. GI 34. Which cell is the body’s primary defense against parasite invasion? a. Eosinophil b. Neutrophils (predominant phagocytes in early inflammation) c. T lymphocytes d. B lymphocytes 35. Which chemical mediators induce pain during an inflammatory response? (SATA) a. Prostaglandins b. Leukotrienes c. Tryptased. Phospholipase e. Bradykinin 36. Sebaceous glands protect the body from infection by secreting a. Antibacterial fatty acids b. Antifungal fatty acids c. Ascorbic acid d. Lactic acid e. Hydrochloric acid 37. Which body fluid has the ability to attack the cell walls of gram + bacteria? (SATA) a. Perspiration b. Semen c. Tears d. Saliva e. Urine Chapter 8 1. Which primary characteristic is unique for the immune response? a. The immune response is similar each time it is activated b. The immune response is specific to the antigen that initiates it c. The response to a specific pathogen is short term d. The response is innate, rather than acquired 2. In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells? a. Thymus gland b. Regional lymph nodes c. Bone marrow d. Spleen 3. What is the term for the process during which lymphoid stem cells migrate and change into either immunocompetent T cells or immunocompetent B cells? a. Clonal diversity b. Clonal differentiation c. Clonal selection d. Clonal competence 4. Which type of immunity is produced by an individual after either natural exposure to the antigen or after immunization against the antigen a. Passive-acquired immunity b. Active-acquired immunity c. Passive-innate immunity d. Active-innate immunity 5. What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta? a. Passive-acquired immunity b. Active-acquired immunity c. Passive-innate immunity d. Active-innate immunity6. The portion of the antigen that is configured for recognition and biding is referred to as what type of determinant? a. Immunotope b. Paratope c. Epitope d. Antigenitope 7. Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when considering the antigen? a. Size b. Foreigness c. Complexity d. Quantity 8. A student asks why some vaccinations are given orally and some are given by injection. What response by the professor is best? a. Different routes allow the speed of onset of the antigen to be varied, with the IV route being the fastest b. Some individuals appear to be unable to respond to an antigen by a specific route, thus requiring the availability of different routes for the same antigen c. Antigen-presenting cells are highly specialized and thus require more stimulation by different routes d. Each route stimulates a different lymphocyte-containing tissue, resulting in different types of cellular and humoral immunity 9. The functions of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) and CD1 molecules are alike because both do what? a. Are antigen-presenting molecules b. Bind antigens to antibodies c. Secrete IL during the immune process d. Are capable of activating cytotoxic T lymphocytes 10. Where are antibodies produced? a. Helper T lymphocytes b. Thymus gland c. Plasma cells d. Bone marrow 11. Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions? a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgM 12. Which antibody indicates a typical primary immune response? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgE13. An individual is more susceptible to infections of mucous membranes when he or she has a seriously low level of which immunoglobulin antibody? a. IgG b. IgM c. IgA d. IgE 14. How does the B cell receptor (BCR) complex function? a. Communicating info about the antigen to the helper T cell b. Secreting chemical signals to communicate between cells c. Releasing histamine and other vasoactive substances d. Communicating info about the antigen to the cell nucleus 15. The generation of clonal diversity occurs primarily during which phase of life? a. Fetal b. Neonatal c. Infancy d. Puberty 16. A student is confused about the process of the generation of clonal diversity. What description by the professor is best? a. It involves antigens that select those lymphocytes with compatible receptors b. It allows the differentiation of cells into antibody-secreting plasma cells or mature Peyer patches c. It takes place in the primary (central) lymphoid organs d. It causes antigens to expand and diversify their populations 17. Which is an example of an endogenous antigen? a. Yeast b. Cancer cells c. Bacteria d. Fungus 18. Which cytokine is needed for the maturation of functional helper T cell? a. IL-1 b. IL-2 c. IL-4 d. IL-12 19. Th2 cells produce IL-4 and suppress which cells? a. B lymphocytes b. Cytotoxic T lymphocytes c. Th1 cells d. Memory T lymphocytes 20. Which statement is believed to be true concerning Th1 cells? a. Th1 cells are induced by antigens derived from allergens b. They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells c. Th1 cells produce IL-4, IL-5, IL-6, and IL-13 d. They assist in the development of cell-mediated immunity 21. Which statement is believed to be true concerning Th2 cells?a. Th2 cells are induced by antigens and derived from allergens b. They are induced by antigens derived from cancer cells c. Th2 cells produce IL-2, TNF-B, and INF-J d. They assist in the development of cell-mediated immunity 22. When a person is exposed to most antigens, antibodies can be usually detected in his or her circulation within a. 12 hours b. 24 hours c. 3 days d. 6 days 23. Vaccinations are able to provide protection against certain microorganisms because of the a. Strong response from IgM b. Level of protection provided by IgG c. Memory cells for IgE d. Rapid response from IgA 24. Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after initial infection? a. Virus does not circulate in the blood b. It does not have antibody receptors c. It resists agglutination d. The virus is a soluble antigen 25. Increased age may cause which change in lymphocyte function? a. Increased production of antibodies against self-antigens b. Decreased number of circulating T cells c. Decreased production of autoantibodies d. Increased production of helper T cells 26. How do antibodies protect the host from bacterial toxins? a. Lysing the cell membrane of the toxins b. Binding to the toxins to neutralize their biologic effects c. Inhibiting the synthesis of DNA proteins needed for growth d. Interfering with the DNA enzyme needed for replication 27. Which T cell controls or limits the immune response to protect the host’s own tissues against an autoimmune response? a. Cytotoxic T cells b. Th1 cells c. Th2 cells d. Regulatory T (Treg) cells) 28. What are the necessary components of an adaptive immune response? (SATA) a. Antigen b. Gamma IgG c. Lymphocyte surface receptors d. Crystalline fragment e. Antibody 29. Crosses the placenta (IgG) 30. Is predominantly found in the blood and body secretions (IgA)31. Mediates many common allergic responses (IgE) Chapter 9 1. Type III hypersensitivity reactions are a result of which one of these? a. Antibodies coating mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by the discharge of preformed mediators b. Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into the body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited into the tissues c. Tc cells or lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets d. Antibodies binding to the antigen on the cell surface 2. A type IV hypersensitivity reaction causes which result? a. Antibodies coating mast cells by binding to receptors that signal its degranulation, followed by the discharge of preformed mediators b. Antibodies binding to soluble antigens that were released into body fluids and the immune complexes being deposited in the tissues c. Lymphokine-producing Th1 cells directly attacking and destroying cellular targets d. Antibodies binding to the antigen on the cell surface 3. In a type III hypersensitivity reaction, the harmful effects after the immune complexes that are deposited in tissues are a result of what? a. Cytotoxic T cells b. NK cells c. Complement activation d. Degranulation of mast cells 4. A healthcare professional is teaching a patient about Raynaud phenomenon and instructs the patient to avoid cold. What is the best explanation of how cold impacts the manifestations of this disease? a. Immune complexes are deposited in capillary beds, blocking circulation b. Mast cells that are bound to specific endothelial receptors, causing them to degranulate and creating a localized inflammatory reaction that occludes capillary circulation c. Cytotoxic T cells that attack and destroy the capillaries so that they are unable to perfuse local tissues d. Antibodies that detect the capillaries as foreign protein and destroy them using lysosomal enzymes and toxic oxygen species 5. Deficiencies in which element can produce depression of both B-and T-cell function? a. Iron b. Zinc c. Iodine d. Magnesium 6. An Rh-neg woman gave birth to an Rh-pos baby. When discussing Rho(D) immunoglobulin with her, what info should the healthcare professional provide? a. It provides protection against infection from poor immunity in the baby b. It prevents alloimmunity and hemolytic anemia of the newborn c. It provides necessary antibodies in case the mother does not breastfeedd. It causes the intestinal tract of the newborn to produce antibodies 7. Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease? a. Hemolytic anemia b. Pernicious anemia c. SLE d. Myasthenia gravis 8. A patient asks the health care professional why tissue damage occurs in acute rejection after organ transplantation. What response by the professional is best? a. Th1 cells release cytokines that activate infiltration macrophages, and cytotoxic T cells directly attack the endothelial cells of the transplanted tissue b. Circulating immune complexes are deposited in the endothelial cells of transplanted tissue, where the complement cascade lyses tissue c. Receptors on NK cells recognize antigens on the cell surface of transplanted tissue, which releases lysosomal enzymes that destroy tissue d. Antibodies coat the surface of transplanted tissue to which mast cells bind and liberate performed chemical mediators that destroy tissue 9. Which blood cell carries the carbohydrate antigen for blood type? a. Platelets b. Neutrophils c. Lymphocytes d. Erythrocytes 10. A person with type O blood needs a blood transfusion. What blood type does the healthcare professional prepare to administer to the patient? a. A b. B c. AB d. O 11. Which class of immunoglobulins forms isohemagglutinins? a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgM 12. Which component of the immune system is deficient in individuals with infections caused by viruses, fungi, or yeast? a. NK cells b. Macrophages c. B cells d. T cells 13. A child in the clinic has an absence of parathyroid gland, structural heart defects, and a shortened structure of the upper lip. What immune dysfunction does the healthcare professional suspect? a. Partial-to complete absence of T-cell immunity b. X-linked recessive microcephalyc. An autoimmune disease like SLE d. Adenosine deaminase deficiency 14. How many months does it take for the newborn to be sufficiently protected by antibodies produced by its own B cells? a. 1-2 b. 4-5 c. 6-8 d. 10-12 15. Considering the effects of nutritional deficiencies on the immune system, severe deficits in calories and protein lead to deficiencies in the formation of which immune cells? a. B cells b. T cells c. NK cells d. Neutrophils 16. Urticaria is a manifestation of which type of hypersensitivity reaction? a. IV b. III c. II d. I 17. What is Graves disease a result of? a. Increased levels of circulating immunoglobulins b. The infiltration of the thyroid with T lymphocytes c. Autoantibodies binding to thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)-receptor sites 18. Graves disease is an autoimmune disease that results in which maternal antibody? a. Binding with receptors for neural transmitters on muscle cells, causing neonatal muscular weakness b. Affecting the receptor for TSH, causing neonatal hyperthyroidism c. Inducing anomalies in the fetus or causing pregnancy loss d. Destroying platelets in the fetus and neonate 19. When a TB skin test is +, the hard center and erythema surrounding the induration are a result of which of the following? a. Histamine b. T lymphocytes c. Immune complexes d. Products of complement e. Macrophages 20. Exposure to which of the following could results in a type IV hypersensitivity reaction? a. Poison ivy b. Neomycin c. Dairy products d. Nickel e. Detergents 21. Which disorders are considered autoimmune? a. Chrohnsb. Addisons c. RA d. SLE e. Noninsulin dependent DM 22. Which statements best define acute rejection? a. Acute rejection is a cell-mediated immune response b. Acute rejection is usually a type III rejection c. Immunosuppressive drugs delay or lessen the intensity of an acute rejection d. Acute rejection is associated with the body’s response to an organ transplant e. Acute rejection is a response against unmatched human leukocyte antigens (HLA’s) Chapter 10 1. What does the student learn about HIV? a. HIV only infects T-helper (Th) cells b. HIV is a retrovirus c. HIV carries genetic information in its DNA d. HIV has five identified strains 2. What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV infection? a. Reverse transcriptase converts single stranded DNA into double stranded DNA b. It is needed to produce integrase c. It transports the RNA into the cell nucleus d. It converts RNA into double-stranded DNA 3. After sexual transmission, how soon can lab results detect the infection? a. 1-2 days b. 4-10 days c. 4-8 weeks d. 2-4 months 4. Which cells are primary targets for HIV? a. CD4+ Th cells only b. CD4+ Th cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells c. CD8+ positive cytotoxic T (Tc) cells and plasma cells d. CD8-positive Tc cells only 5. What area in the body may act as a resovoir in which HIV can be relatively protected from antiviral drugs? a. CNS b. Bone marrow c. Thymus gland d. Lungs 6. What is the final stage of the infectious process? a. Colonization b. Invasion c. Multiplication d. Spread 7. How is toxigenicity defined?a. The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host b. The pathogen’s ability to produce disease by the production of a soluble toxin c. The ability of an agent to produce disease d. The potency of a pathogen measured in terms of the number of microorganisms required to kill the host 8. What is the ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host referred to as? a. Infectivity b. Toxigenicity c. Pathogenicity d. Virulence 9. Some bacterial surface proteins bind with the crystalline fragment (Fc) portion of an antibody to do what? a. Hide in cells to avoid triggering an immune response b. Form self-protecting toxins c. Make staining possible for microscopic observation d. Produce a protective “self” protein 10. Which organism is a common sexually transmitted bacterial infection? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Clostridium perfringens c. Helicobacter pylori d. Treponema pallidum 11. Which disease is an example of a rickettsial infection? a. Cholera b. Candida c. Sleeping sickness d. Rocky mountain spotted fever 12. Which secretions transmit HIV? a. Semen b. Urine c. Saliva d. Breast milk e. Sweat 13. Which infections are fungal? a. Ringworm b. Candida c. Cholera d. Athlete’s foot e. Aspergillus 14. Which statements are true regarding the development of HIV symptoms? a. Symptoms generally appear in the clinical latency stage b. Symptoms are generally observable within 5 years of the initial infection c. T cells levels, particularly those of memory T cells, progressively decrease d. Untreated infected individuals may remain asymptomatic up to 10 years e. Secondary lymphoid organs experience damage and resulting malfunction15. Which statements are true regarding endotoxins? a. Endotoxins are lipopolysaccharides b. Endotoxins are located in the wall of bacteria c. Endotoxins are created during the process of lysis d. Endotoxins are found in gram negative microorganisms e. Endotoxins are released during the destruction of its host 16. Which statements are true regarding viruses? a. Viruses are very complex microorganisms b. Viruses are referred to as eukaryotes c. Viruses are capable of producing messenger RNA (mRNA) d. Viruses penetrate plasma membranes via endocytosis e. Viruses are capable of uncoating cytoplasmic nucleocapsid 17. Which of these play a role in the control of fungal infections? a. Cytokines b. Macrophages c. NK cells d. Neutrophils e. T lymphocytes 18. Which are complications of AIDS? a. Kaposi sarcoma b. H. pylori c. Cytomegalovirus retinitis d. Herpes simplex infection e. Legionella pneumophila 19. Hypersensitivity is best defined as a(n) a. Disturbance in the immunologic tolerance of self-antigens b. Immunologic reaction of one person to the tissue of another person c. Altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease d. Undetectable immune response in the presence of antigens 20. A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called a. Hemolytic shock b. Anaphylaxis c. Necrotizing vasculitis d. Systemic erythrmatosus 21. The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins? a. IgE b. IgG c. IgM d. T cells 22. Which type of antibody is involved in type 1 hypersensitivity reaction a. IgA b. IgE c. IgGd. IgM