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MED-SURG 201 Final Exam – Practice Questions with Answers & Rationales (1).pdf

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MED-SURG 201 Final Exam – Practice Questions with Answers & Rationales (1).pdf

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✅ MED-SURG 201 Final Exam – Practice
Questions with Answers & Rationales

(Original, NCLEX-style, clinically accurate)




1. A client with heart failure is receiving IV furosemide.
Which assessment requires immediate intervention?
A. Urine output 60 mL/hr​
B. Blood pressure 102/70 mmHg​
C. Serum potassium 2.9 mEq/L​
D. Crackles in lower lobes

Correct Answer: C​
Rationale: Furosemide causes potassium loss. A level of 2.9 is life-threatening and may lead
to dysrhythmias. Immediate replacement is required.




2. A client with COPD is on 2 L/min oxygen via nasal
cannula. Which finding signals CO₂ retention?
A. Respiratory rate increases to 24/min​
B. Patient becomes difficult to arouse​
C. Pulse oximetry rises to 95%​
D. Productive cough increases

Correct Answer: B​
Rationale: CO₂ narcosis causes decreased LOC. This is an emergency.

,3. A post-op patient reports sudden chest pain and
dyspnea. What is the priority action?
A. Give morphine​
B. Raise HOB​
C. Check surgical dressing​
D. Increase IV fluids

Correct Answer: B​
Rationale: Symptoms indicate possible pulmonary embolism. Elevate HOB to improve
ventilation while calling rapid response.




4. A client with diabetes has a blood glucose of 48 mg/dL
and is awake but shaky. What is the priority?
A. Give 1 mg glucagon IM​
B. Recheck glucose in 15 min​
C. Give 15 g fast-acting carbs​
D. Call provider

Correct Answer: C​
Rationale: Conscious + hypoglycemic → give fast carbs immediately.




5. Which assessment indicates digoxin toxicity?
A. Tachycardia​
B. Yellow vision​
C. Hypertension​
D. Increased appetite

Correct Answer: B​
Rationale: Xanthopsia (yellow/green halos) is classic digoxin toxicity.




6. A patient with pneumonia has RR 32/min, accessory
muscle use, and SpO₂ 88% on room air. Priority?

,A. Notify provider​
B. Apply 2 L/min oxygen​
C. Give prescribed cough suppressant​
D. Encourage deep breathing

Correct Answer: B




7. A patient on heparin infusion has an aPTT of 115
seconds. What is the nurse’s action?
A. Increase infusion​
B. Stop infusion​
C. Give aspirin​
D. Flush IV line

Correct Answer: B​
Rationale: Therapeutic aPTT = 60–80 sec. 115 = high → stop infusion and assess bleeding.




8. Which food should a client on warfarin avoid excessive
intake of?
A. Bananas​
B. Spinach​
C. Milk​
D. Chicken

Correct Answer: B​
Rationale: Spinach is high in vitamin K, which decreases warfarin effectiveness.




9. A client with acute pancreatitis is NPO. Which finding
indicates worsening condition?
A. Decreasing pain​
B. Elevated serum lipase​
C. Grey Turner's sign​
D. Hypoactive bowel sounds

, Correct Answer: C​
Rationale: Flank bruising indicates internal bleeding.




10. Which intervention prevents venous
thromboembolism in a post-op patient?
A. Restrict fluids​
B. Apply compression devices​
C. Place in high Fowler’s​
D. Encourage coughing only

Correct Answer: B




11. A client with renal failure has K⁺ = 6.8 mEq/L. What is
the nurse’s priority?
A. Limit protein​
B. Administer insulin + dextrose​
C. Give furosemide​
D. Increase oral fluids

Correct Answer: B​
Rationale: Insulin shifts potassium into the cells—rapid treatment for hyperkalemia.




12. A patient with DKA is receiving IV insulin. Which lab
must be monitored closely?
A. Calcium​
B. Potassium​
C. Sodium​
D. BUN

Correct Answer: B​
Rationale: Insulin lowers blood K⁺ → risk of hypokalemia.
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