NUR 200 SAS 1-23 QUESTIONS WITH
ANSWERS LATEST 2025
SAS 1
1. The term “pink puffer” refers to the client with which
of the following symptoms?
a. ARDS
b. Asthma
c. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
d. Emphysema.
2. The underlying pathophysiology of COPD is:
a. inflamed airways that obstruct airflow.
b. mucus secretions that block airways
c. overinflated alveoli that impair gas exchange.
d. characterized by variations of all of the above.
3. The abnormal inflammatory response in the lungs
occurs primarily in the:
a. airways.
b. parenchyma.
c. pulmonary vasculature.
d. areas identified in all of the above.
4. Two diseases common to the etiology of COPD are:
a. asthma and atelectasis.
b. chronic bronchitis and emphysema.
c. pneumonia and pleurisy.
d. tuberculosis and pleural effusions.
5. The term “blue bloater” refers to which of the
following conditions?
a. adult respiratory distress syndrome
b. asthma
c. chronic obstructive bronchitis
d. emphysema
6. The most important environmental risk factor for
emphysema is:
a. air pollution.
b. allergens.
c. infectious agents.
d. cigarette smoking.
7. A 66-year-old client has marked dyspnea at rest, is
thin and uses accessory muscles to breathe. He is
tachypneic, with a prolonged expiration phase. He has
no cough. He leans forward with his arms braced on his
knees to support his chest and shoulder for breathing.
,This client has symptoms of which of the following
respiratory disorder?
a. ARDS
b. Asthma
c. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
d. Emphysema.
8. Clients with chronic obstructive bronchitis are given
diuretic therapy. Which of the following reasons
explains why?
a. reducing fluid volume reduces oxygen demand
b. reducing fluid volume improves clients’ morbidity
c. restricting fluid volume reduces sputum production
d. reducing fluid volume improves respiratory function
9. Teaching for a client with chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD) should include which of the
following topics?
a. How to have his wife learn to listen to his lungs with a
stethoscope
b. How to increase his oxygen therapy
c. How to treat respiratory infections without going to
the physician
d. How to recognize the signs of impending respiratory
infection.
10. A nurse plans care for a client with chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease, knowing that the client
is most likely to experience what type of acid- base
imbalance.
a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis
SAS 2
1. A nurse is caring for several clients. Which of the
following clients are at risk for having a pulmonary
embolism? (Select all that apply.)
A. A client who has a BMI of 30
B. A female client who is postmenopausal
C. A client who has a fractured femur
D. A client who is a marathon runner
E. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation
,2. A nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a client who has
acute dyspnea and diaphoresis. The client states that
she is anxious because she feels that she cannot get
enough air. Vital signs are: heart rate 117/min,
respiratory rate 38/min, temperature 38.4° C (101.2° F),
and blood pressure 100/54 mm Hg. Which of the
following actions is the priority action at this time?
A. Notify the provider.
B. Administer heparin via IV infusion.
C. Administer oxygen therapy.
D. Obtain a spiral CT scan.
3. A male patient’s X-ray result reveals bilateral white-
outs indicating adult respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS). This syndrome results from;
A. Cardiogenic pulmonary edema
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Increased pulmonary capillary permeability.
D. Renal failure
4. A nurse is caring for a male client with acute
respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following
would the nurse expect to note in the client?
A. Pallor
B. Low arterial PaO2
C. Elevated arterial PaO2
D. Decreased respiratory rate.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a pulmonary
embolism. Which of the clinical manifestations should
the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.)
A. Bradypnea
B. Pleural friction rub
C. Hypertension
D. Petechiae
E. Tachycardia
6. You’re providing care to a patient who is being
treated for aspiration pneumonia. The patient is on a
100% nonrebreather mask. Which finding below is a
HALLMARK sign and symptom that the patient is
developing acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS)?
A. The patient is experiencing bradypnea.
B. The patient is tired and confused.
, C. The patient’s PaO2 remains at 45 mmHg.
D. The patient’s blood pressure is 180/96.
7. A male adult patient hospitalized for treatment of a
pulmonary embolism develops respiratory alkalosis.
Which clinical findings commonly accompany
respiratory alkalosis?
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Abdominal pain or diarrhea
C. Hallucination or tinnitus
D. Lightheadedness and paresthesia
8. A client is suspected of having pulmonary embolism.
A nurse assesses the client, knowing that which of the
following is a common clinical manifestation of
pulmonary embolism?
A. Dyspnea
B. Bradypnea
C. Bradycardia
D. Decrease respiration
9. A patient has been hospitalized in the ICU for a near
drowning event. The patient’s respiratory function has
been deteriorating over the last 24 hours. The physician
suspects acute respiratory distress syndrome. A STAT
chest x-ray is ordered. What finding on the chest x-ray
is indicative of ARDS?
A. infiltrates only on the upper lobes
B. enlargement of the heart with bilateral lower lobe
infiltrates
C. white-out infiltrates bilaterally
D. normal chest x-ray
10. Which patient below is at MOST risk for developing
ARDS and has the worst prognosis?
A. A 52-year-old male patient with a pneumothorax.
B. A 48-year-old male being treated for diabetic
ketoacidosis.
C. A 69-year-old female with sepsis caused by a gram-
negative bacterial infection.
D. A 30-year-old female with cystic fibrosis.
11. The nurse assesses a patient for possible pulmonary
embolism. The nurse looks for the most frequent sign
of:
A. Cough
B. Hemoptysis
C. Syncope
D. Tachypnea
ANSWERS LATEST 2025
SAS 1
1. The term “pink puffer” refers to the client with which
of the following symptoms?
a. ARDS
b. Asthma
c. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
d. Emphysema.
2. The underlying pathophysiology of COPD is:
a. inflamed airways that obstruct airflow.
b. mucus secretions that block airways
c. overinflated alveoli that impair gas exchange.
d. characterized by variations of all of the above.
3. The abnormal inflammatory response in the lungs
occurs primarily in the:
a. airways.
b. parenchyma.
c. pulmonary vasculature.
d. areas identified in all of the above.
4. Two diseases common to the etiology of COPD are:
a. asthma and atelectasis.
b. chronic bronchitis and emphysema.
c. pneumonia and pleurisy.
d. tuberculosis and pleural effusions.
5. The term “blue bloater” refers to which of the
following conditions?
a. adult respiratory distress syndrome
b. asthma
c. chronic obstructive bronchitis
d. emphysema
6. The most important environmental risk factor for
emphysema is:
a. air pollution.
b. allergens.
c. infectious agents.
d. cigarette smoking.
7. A 66-year-old client has marked dyspnea at rest, is
thin and uses accessory muscles to breathe. He is
tachypneic, with a prolonged expiration phase. He has
no cough. He leans forward with his arms braced on his
knees to support his chest and shoulder for breathing.
,This client has symptoms of which of the following
respiratory disorder?
a. ARDS
b. Asthma
c. Chronic obstructive bronchitis
d. Emphysema.
8. Clients with chronic obstructive bronchitis are given
diuretic therapy. Which of the following reasons
explains why?
a. reducing fluid volume reduces oxygen demand
b. reducing fluid volume improves clients’ morbidity
c. restricting fluid volume reduces sputum production
d. reducing fluid volume improves respiratory function
9. Teaching for a client with chronic obstructive
pulmonary disease (COPD) should include which of the
following topics?
a. How to have his wife learn to listen to his lungs with a
stethoscope
b. How to increase his oxygen therapy
c. How to treat respiratory infections without going to
the physician
d. How to recognize the signs of impending respiratory
infection.
10. A nurse plans care for a client with chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease, knowing that the client
is most likely to experience what type of acid- base
imbalance.
a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis
SAS 2
1. A nurse is caring for several clients. Which of the
following clients are at risk for having a pulmonary
embolism? (Select all that apply.)
A. A client who has a BMI of 30
B. A female client who is postmenopausal
C. A client who has a fractured femur
D. A client who is a marathon runner
E. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation
,2. A nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a client who has
acute dyspnea and diaphoresis. The client states that
she is anxious because she feels that she cannot get
enough air. Vital signs are: heart rate 117/min,
respiratory rate 38/min, temperature 38.4° C (101.2° F),
and blood pressure 100/54 mm Hg. Which of the
following actions is the priority action at this time?
A. Notify the provider.
B. Administer heparin via IV infusion.
C. Administer oxygen therapy.
D. Obtain a spiral CT scan.
3. A male patient’s X-ray result reveals bilateral white-
outs indicating adult respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS). This syndrome results from;
A. Cardiogenic pulmonary edema
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Increased pulmonary capillary permeability.
D. Renal failure
4. A nurse is caring for a male client with acute
respiratory distress syndrome. Which of the following
would the nurse expect to note in the client?
A. Pallor
B. Low arterial PaO2
C. Elevated arterial PaO2
D. Decreased respiratory rate.
5. A nurse is assessing a client who has a pulmonary
embolism. Which of the clinical manifestations should
the nurse expect to find? (Select all that apply.)
A. Bradypnea
B. Pleural friction rub
C. Hypertension
D. Petechiae
E. Tachycardia
6. You’re providing care to a patient who is being
treated for aspiration pneumonia. The patient is on a
100% nonrebreather mask. Which finding below is a
HALLMARK sign and symptom that the patient is
developing acute respiratory distress syndrome
(ARDS)?
A. The patient is experiencing bradypnea.
B. The patient is tired and confused.
, C. The patient’s PaO2 remains at 45 mmHg.
D. The patient’s blood pressure is 180/96.
7. A male adult patient hospitalized for treatment of a
pulmonary embolism develops respiratory alkalosis.
Which clinical findings commonly accompany
respiratory alkalosis?
A. Nausea and vomiting
B. Abdominal pain or diarrhea
C. Hallucination or tinnitus
D. Lightheadedness and paresthesia
8. A client is suspected of having pulmonary embolism.
A nurse assesses the client, knowing that which of the
following is a common clinical manifestation of
pulmonary embolism?
A. Dyspnea
B. Bradypnea
C. Bradycardia
D. Decrease respiration
9. A patient has been hospitalized in the ICU for a near
drowning event. The patient’s respiratory function has
been deteriorating over the last 24 hours. The physician
suspects acute respiratory distress syndrome. A STAT
chest x-ray is ordered. What finding on the chest x-ray
is indicative of ARDS?
A. infiltrates only on the upper lobes
B. enlargement of the heart with bilateral lower lobe
infiltrates
C. white-out infiltrates bilaterally
D. normal chest x-ray
10. Which patient below is at MOST risk for developing
ARDS and has the worst prognosis?
A. A 52-year-old male patient with a pneumothorax.
B. A 48-year-old male being treated for diabetic
ketoacidosis.
C. A 69-year-old female with sepsis caused by a gram-
negative bacterial infection.
D. A 30-year-old female with cystic fibrosis.
11. The nurse assesses a patient for possible pulmonary
embolism. The nurse looks for the most frequent sign
of:
A. Cough
B. Hemoptysis
C. Syncope
D. Tachypnea
