BAYLOR ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM
BAYLOR ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM
NEWEST 2025/2026 COMPLETE 150
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
|ALREADY GRADED A+
A woman has secondary amenorrhea. What is the most probable cause for this finding?
1. Polycystic ovary syndrome
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Pregnancy
4. Turner syndrome –
Correct Answer :Pregnant
A+ TEST BANK 1
, BAYLOR ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM
During times of increasing blood volume such as in heart failure, a compensatory renal response
is:
A) afferent arteriole vasoconstriction and efferent arteriole vasodilation to promote
reabsorption of fluid.
B) release of urodilatin, which inhibits water and sodium reabsorption thereby leading to
diuresis.
C) inhibition of atrial and brain natriuretic peptides to prevent fluid retention.
D) increase in antidiuretic hormone release which promotes diuresis. –
Correct Answer :B)
release of urodilatin, which inhibits water and sodium reabsorption thereby leading to diuresis.
A 70-year-old woman with severe rheumatoid arthritis has difficulty with activities of daily living
such as
eating and dressing herself. She also states that she sometimes is incontinent of urine because
she has trouble walking to the bathroom because of pain and getting her underwear off quickly
enough. The type
of incontinence she is describing is:
A) gross.
B) mixed.
C) stress.
D) functional. –
Correct Answer :D) functional.
A father brought his son to the emergency room because he has a painful erection that is not
abating.
A+ TEST BANK 2
, BAYLOR ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM
His son has sickle cell anemia. He is diagnosed with priapism. How does sickle cell lead to
priapism?
A) Too much blood is shunted to the corpus cavernosum.
B) The sickled red blood cells get trapped in the penis.
C) There is an increase in nitric oxide, which increases blood flow.
D) The sickled red blood cells cause trauma to the shaft. –
Correct Answer :B) The sickled red blood cells get trapped in the penis.
A man has been complaining that his scrotum sometimes feels heavy, and it seems to get worse
as
the day progresses. He says it's not too bothersome. An ultrasound is done and reveals the
presence of a
small hydrocele. You would explain that:
A) surgery is almost always necessary to remove the fluid.
B) he is at increased risk for testicular cancer.
C) most hydroceles go away on their own.
D) an inguinal hernia is the caus. –
Correct Answer :C) most hydroceles go away on their own.
A 14-year-old boy was playing soccer and developed sudden acute testicular pain. He is at the
A+ TEST BANK 3
, BAYLOR ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM
emergency room. Clinical exam reveals a very painful, swollen, left testis. The most likely cause
of this
testicular pain is:
A) testicular cancer.
B) cryptorchidism.
C) varicocele.
D) testicular torsion. -
Correct Answer :D) testicular torsion.
A cause of testicular torsion includes:
A) testicles that are not secure in the scrotum.
B) a long spermatic cord.
C) the testicle is in a longitudinal position.
D) epididymitis. –
Correct Answer :A) testicles that are not secure in the scrotum.
Structural uterine disorders that can cause heavy menstrual bleeding include:
A) leiomyoma (uterine fibroids).
B) thyroid disorders.
C) medications such as hormones.
D) coagulopathy. –
Correct Answer :A) leiomyoma (uterine fibroids).
A+ TEST BANK 4
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM
BAYLOR ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM
NEWEST 2025/2026 COMPLETE 150
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED
ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS)
|ALREADY GRADED A+
A woman has secondary amenorrhea. What is the most probable cause for this finding?
1. Polycystic ovary syndrome
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Pregnancy
4. Turner syndrome –
Correct Answer :Pregnant
A+ TEST BANK 1
, BAYLOR ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM
During times of increasing blood volume such as in heart failure, a compensatory renal response
is:
A) afferent arteriole vasoconstriction and efferent arteriole vasodilation to promote
reabsorption of fluid.
B) release of urodilatin, which inhibits water and sodium reabsorption thereby leading to
diuresis.
C) inhibition of atrial and brain natriuretic peptides to prevent fluid retention.
D) increase in antidiuretic hormone release which promotes diuresis. –
Correct Answer :B)
release of urodilatin, which inhibits water and sodium reabsorption thereby leading to diuresis.
A 70-year-old woman with severe rheumatoid arthritis has difficulty with activities of daily living
such as
eating and dressing herself. She also states that she sometimes is incontinent of urine because
she has trouble walking to the bathroom because of pain and getting her underwear off quickly
enough. The type
of incontinence she is describing is:
A) gross.
B) mixed.
C) stress.
D) functional. –
Correct Answer :D) functional.
A father brought his son to the emergency room because he has a painful erection that is not
abating.
A+ TEST BANK 2
, BAYLOR ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM
His son has sickle cell anemia. He is diagnosed with priapism. How does sickle cell lead to
priapism?
A) Too much blood is shunted to the corpus cavernosum.
B) The sickled red blood cells get trapped in the penis.
C) There is an increase in nitric oxide, which increases blood flow.
D) The sickled red blood cells cause trauma to the shaft. –
Correct Answer :B) The sickled red blood cells get trapped in the penis.
A man has been complaining that his scrotum sometimes feels heavy, and it seems to get worse
as
the day progresses. He says it's not too bothersome. An ultrasound is done and reveals the
presence of a
small hydrocele. You would explain that:
A) surgery is almost always necessary to remove the fluid.
B) he is at increased risk for testicular cancer.
C) most hydroceles go away on their own.
D) an inguinal hernia is the caus. –
Correct Answer :C) most hydroceles go away on their own.
A 14-year-old boy was playing soccer and developed sudden acute testicular pain. He is at the
A+ TEST BANK 3
, BAYLOR ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY FINAL EXAM
emergency room. Clinical exam reveals a very painful, swollen, left testis. The most likely cause
of this
testicular pain is:
A) testicular cancer.
B) cryptorchidism.
C) varicocele.
D) testicular torsion. -
Correct Answer :D) testicular torsion.
A cause of testicular torsion includes:
A) testicles that are not secure in the scrotum.
B) a long spermatic cord.
C) the testicle is in a longitudinal position.
D) epididymitis. –
Correct Answer :A) testicles that are not secure in the scrotum.
Structural uterine disorders that can cause heavy menstrual bleeding include:
A) leiomyoma (uterine fibroids).
B) thyroid disorders.
C) medications such as hormones.
D) coagulopathy. –
Correct Answer :A) leiomyoma (uterine fibroids).
A+ TEST BANK 4
