Simple: Color Edition
3rd Edition
Author(s)Aaron Berkowitz MD PhD
TEST BANK
1
Reference: Ch. 1 — Heart Failure / Left Heart Failure
Question Stem: A 72-year-old man with chronic hypertension
presents with progressive exertional dyspnea, orthopnea, and
bibasilar crackles. His chest x-ray shows pulmonary congestion.
Which mechanism best explains his symptoms?
A. Elevated right atrial pressure causing systemic venous backup
B. Left ventricular systolic dysfunction causing increased
pulmonary capillary hydrostatic pressure
C. Mitral valve stenosis causing decreased pulmonary blood
,flow
D. Primary pulmonary hypertension causing left-to-right shunt
Correct Answer: B
Rationales:
• Correct (B): Left ventricular systolic dysfunction reduces
forward output, increasing left ventricular end-diastolic
pressure and pulmonary venous/capillary hydrostatic
pressure; fluid transudation into alveoli causes pulmonary
edema and dyspnea. This aligns with Berkowitz’s
explanation of left heart failure producing pulmonary
congestion.
• Incorrect (A): Right atrial pressure elevation produces
systemic venous congestion (eg, hepatic congestion,
peripheral edema), not the pulmonary crackles described.
• Incorrect (C): Mitral stenosis can cause pulmonary
congestion but does so by obstructing LV inflow; the
clinical cue of chronic hypertension and LV dysfunction
makes systolic failure more likely.
• Incorrect (D): Primary pulmonary hypertension produces
right ventricular strain; it does not create a left-to-right
shunt or primary pulmonary edema in this presentation.
Teaching Point: Left ventricular failure raises pulmonary
capillary pressure → pulmonary edema and dyspnea.
Citation: Berkowitz, 2023, Ch. 1: Left Heart Failure
,2
Reference: Ch. 1 — Right Heart Failure / The Kidneys in Heart
Failure
Question Stem: A patient with chronic right heart failure
develops progressive peripheral edema and weight gain despite
a normal serum sodium. Which renal mechanism most
contributes to fluid retention in right heart failure?
A. Increased renal perfusion and natriuresis
B. Activation of the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system
(RAAS) due to reduced effective circulating volume
C. Direct nephron injury from venous congestion causing
tubular necrosis
D. Suppression of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) release from
atrial stretch
Correct Answer: B
Rationales:
• Correct (B): In heart failure the kidneys sense decreased
effective arterial blood volume despite total volume
overload; this activates RAAS, increasing sodium and water
retention via aldosterone, worsening edema — a core
concept in Berkowitz’s discussion of the kidneys in heart
failure.
, • Incorrect (A): Renal perfusion is effectively decreased
(despite total volume), causing sodium retention rather
than natriuresis.
• Incorrect (C): Venous congestion can impair renal function
but tubular necrosis is not the primary chronic mechanism
behind progressive sodium retention in heart failure.
• Incorrect (D): Atrial stretch often increases ADH (water
retention), not suppresses it; suppression would promote
diuresis, which is not seen here.
Teaching Point: Reduced effective arterial volume activates
RAAS → sodium/water retention in HF.
Citation: Berkowitz, 2023, Ch. 1: The Kidneys in Heart Failure /
Right Heart Failure
3
Reference: Ch. 1 — Preload, Afterload, and Treatment of Heart
Failure
Question Stem: A patient with acute decompensated heart
failure is given IV nitroprusside. Which immediate
hemodynamic effect explains improved pulmonary edema?
A. Increased preload via venoconstriction
B. Reduced afterload and venodilation decreasing LV filling
pressures
C. Increased heart rate improving cardiac output