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The average onset of perimenopause in North American women is between the ages of:
A. 35 to 40 years.
B. 40 to 45 years.
C. 45 to 50 years.
D. 50 to 55 years. ✔Correct Answer-B. 40 to 45 years.
Which of the following statements regarding perimenopause is false?
A. Menstruation ceases during perimenopause.
B. Hot flashes and flushes are common during the week before menses.
C. Pregnancy is still possible during perimenopause.
D. Ovulation becomes more erratic during perimenopause. ✔Correct Answer-A. Menstruation
ceases during perimenopause.
In advising a woman about menopause, the NP considers that:
A. the average age at last menstrual period for a North American woman is 47 to 48 years.
B. hot flashes and night sweats occur in about 60% to 90% of women.
C. women with surgical menopause usually have milder symptoms.
D. follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH) levels are suppressed.
✔Correct Answer-B. hot flashes and night sweats occur in about 60% to 90% of women.
Findings in estrogen deficiency (atrophic) vaginitis include:
A. a malodorous vaginal discharge.
B. an increased number of lactobacilli.
C. a reduced number of white blood cells.
D. a pH greater than 5.0 ✔Correct Answer-D. a pH greater than 5.0
A 53-year-old woman who is taking hormone therapy (HT) with conjugated estrogen, 0.45 mg/day,
with medroxyprogesterone acetate (MPA), 1.5 mg, has bothersome atrophic vaginitis symptoms. You
advise that:
A. her oral estrogen dose should be increased.
B. the addition of a topical estrogen can be helpful.
C. the MPA component should be discontinued.
D. baking soda douche should be tried. ✔Correct Answer-B. the addition of a topical estrogen can
be helpful.
, For a woman with bothersome hot flashes who cannot take HT, alternative options with
demonstrated efficacy and limited adverse effects include the use of all of the following except:
A. venlafaxine.
B. sertraline.
C. gabapentin.
D. clonidine. ✔Correct Answer-D. clonidine.
Absolute contraindications to postmenopausal HT include:
A. unexplained vaginal bleeding.
B. seizure disorder.
C. dyslipidemia.
D. migraine headache. ✔Correct Answer-A. unexplained vaginal bleeding.
In advising a perimenopausal woman about HT, you consider that it can:
A. reduce the risk of venous thrombotic events.
B. significantly reduce serum triglyceride levels.
C. worsen hypertension in most women.
D. help preserve bone density. ✔Correct Answer-D. help preserve bone density.
Postmenopausal HT use usually results in:
A. a reduction in the rate of cardiovascular disease.
B. an increase in the rate of rheumatoid arthritis.
C. a reduction in the frequency and severity of vasomotor symptoms.
D. a disturbance in sleep patterns. ✔Correct Answer-C. a reduction in the frequency and severity of
vasomotor symptoms.
The progestin component of HT is given to:
A. counteract the negative lipid effects of estrogen.
B. minimize endometrial hyperplasia.
C. help with vaginal atrophy symptoms.
D. prolong ovarian activity. ✔Correct Answer-B. minimize endometrial hyperplasia.
Concerning selective estrogen receptor modulator therapy such as raloxifene (Evista®), which of the
following statements is correct?
A. Concurrent progestin opposition is needed.
B. Hot flashes are reduced in frequency and severity.
C. Use is contraindicated when a woman has a history of breast cancer.
D. Osteoporosis risk is reduced with use. ✔Correct Answer-D. Osteoporosis risk is reduced with
use.