NUR2513 Exam 1 2025 – Actual
Maternal-Child Nursing Exam | Verified
Questions & Correct Answers –
Rasmussen
This 2025 exam for NUR2513 Maternal-Child Nursing (Rasmussen) includes 70 verified
questions on antepartum, intrapartum, postpartum, and newborn care. Each question has four
options, the correct answer in RED, and a detailed rationale with evidence-based reasoning,
clinical priorities, and exam tips.
Question 1: A 28-year-old gravida 1 at 12 weeks gestation presents for her initial prenatal
visit. What is the priority component of the initial assessment?
A. Fundal height measurement
B. Complete history including medical, surgical, and psychosocial
C. Non-stress test
D. Group B Streptococcus screening
Correct Answer: B. Complete history including medical, surgical, and psychosocial
Rationale: The initial prenatal visit focuses on comprehensive history to identify risks and plan
care (ACOG). Fundal height (A) at 20 weeks; NST (C) third trimester; GBS (D) at 36 weeks.
Clinical priority: Risk assessment. Exam tip: First prenatal – history first.
Question 2: A 34-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation reports contractions every 5
minutes. Upon exam, the cervix is 4 cm dilated, 80% effaced. What is the priority action?
A. Discharge home
B. Admit for labor
C. Administer tocolytics
D. Perform fetal monitoring
Correct Answer: B. Admit for labor
Rationale: 4 cm dilation indicates active labor; admission for monitoring (ACOG). Discharge
(A) if false labor; tocolytics (C) contraindicated; monitoring (D) part of admission. Clinical
priority: Labor progression. Exam tip: >4 cm – active labor.
Question 3: A postpartum woman day 1 after vaginal delivery has a boggy uterus. What is
the priority intervention?
A. Administer oxytocin
B. Perform fundal massage
,C. Assess lochia
D. Both B and C
Correct Answer: B. Perform fundal massage
Rationale: Fundal massage stimulates contractions to control bleeding from atony (AWHONN).
Oxytocin (A) adjunct; lochia (C) secondary. Clinical priority: Hemorrhage prevention. Exam tip:
Boggy uterus – massage first.
Question 4: A newborn at 1 minute has Apgar score of 3. What is the priority intervention?
A. Suction mouth and nose
B. Positive pressure ventilation
C. Chest compressions
D. Intubation
Correct Answer: B. Positive pressure ventilation
Rationale: Apgar <4 requires PPV for HR <100 (NRP). Suction (A) for meconium;
compressions (C) HR <60; intubation (D) later. Clinical priority: Resuscitation. Exam tip: Low
Apgar – PPV.
Question 5: A 26-year-old gravida 2, para 1 at 28 weeks has preterm labor. What is the
priority intervention?
A. Tocolytics
B. Betamethasone
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Bed rest only
Correct Answer: B. Betamethasone
Rationale: Steroids for fetal lung maturity at 24-34 weeks (ACOG). Tocolytics (A) buy time;
magnesium (C) for neuroprotection <32 weeks. Clinical priority: Fetal lung development. Exam
tip: Preterm – steroids first.
Question 6: A 2-day postpartum woman has heavy lochia rubra soaking a pad hourly.
What is the priority action?
A. Fundal massage
B. Assess bladder
C. Administer tranexamic acid
D. Both A and B
Correct Answer: B. Assess bladder
Rationale: Full bladder causes uterine atony; empty bladder first (AWHONN). Massage (A)
follows; tranexamic (C) severe. Clinical priority: Uterine tone. Exam tip: Heavy lochia – bladder
first.
, Question 7: A newborn has a capillary blood glucose of 35 mg/dL at 2 hours. What is the
priority intervention?
A. Breastfeed or formula feed
B. D10W bolus
C. Monitor only
D. Refer to NICU
Correct Answer: A. Breastfeed or formula feed
Rationale: Glucose <40 mg/dL needs feeding; bolus if symptomatic (AAP). Clinical
implication: Repeat in 30 min. Exam tip: Hypoglycemia – feed if >30 mg/dL.
Question 8: A 30-year-old gravida 1 at 8 weeks has vaginal spotting. What is the priority
test?
A. Ultrasound
B. Quantitative hCG
C. Progesterone level
D. Both A and B
Correct Answer: B. Quantitative hCG
Rationale: Serial hCG assesses viability (>50% rise in 48 hours) (ACOG). Ultrasound at >6
weeks; progesterone if ectopic. Clinical implication: Ectopic risk. Exam tip: Spotting – hCG
first.
Question 9: A 6-year-old has a fever, sore throat, and strawberry tongue. What is the
diagnosis?
A. Strep throat
B. Scarlet fever
C. Measles
D. Hand-foot-mouth
Correct Answer: B. Scarlet fever
Rationale: Group A strep with exotoxin causes rash and strawberry tongue (AAP). Clinical
implication: Penicillin. Exam tip: Strawberry tongue – scarlet fever.
Question 10: A 2-week-old has poor feeding and jaundice. What is the priority lab?
A. Bilirubin
B. CBC
C. TSH
D. Both A and C
Correct Answer: A. Bilirubin
Rationale: Jaundice at 2 weeks suggests pathologic; bilirubin >15 mg/dL needs phototherapy
(AAP). TSH for congenital hypothyroidism. Clinical implication: Exchange if high. Exam tip:
Jaundice – bilirubin level.
Maternal-Child Nursing Exam | Verified
Questions & Correct Answers –
Rasmussen
This 2025 exam for NUR2513 Maternal-Child Nursing (Rasmussen) includes 70 verified
questions on antepartum, intrapartum, postpartum, and newborn care. Each question has four
options, the correct answer in RED, and a detailed rationale with evidence-based reasoning,
clinical priorities, and exam tips.
Question 1: A 28-year-old gravida 1 at 12 weeks gestation presents for her initial prenatal
visit. What is the priority component of the initial assessment?
A. Fundal height measurement
B. Complete history including medical, surgical, and psychosocial
C. Non-stress test
D. Group B Streptococcus screening
Correct Answer: B. Complete history including medical, surgical, and psychosocial
Rationale: The initial prenatal visit focuses on comprehensive history to identify risks and plan
care (ACOG). Fundal height (A) at 20 weeks; NST (C) third trimester; GBS (D) at 36 weeks.
Clinical priority: Risk assessment. Exam tip: First prenatal – history first.
Question 2: A 34-year-old woman at 38 weeks gestation reports contractions every 5
minutes. Upon exam, the cervix is 4 cm dilated, 80% effaced. What is the priority action?
A. Discharge home
B. Admit for labor
C. Administer tocolytics
D. Perform fetal monitoring
Correct Answer: B. Admit for labor
Rationale: 4 cm dilation indicates active labor; admission for monitoring (ACOG). Discharge
(A) if false labor; tocolytics (C) contraindicated; monitoring (D) part of admission. Clinical
priority: Labor progression. Exam tip: >4 cm – active labor.
Question 3: A postpartum woman day 1 after vaginal delivery has a boggy uterus. What is
the priority intervention?
A. Administer oxytocin
B. Perform fundal massage
,C. Assess lochia
D. Both B and C
Correct Answer: B. Perform fundal massage
Rationale: Fundal massage stimulates contractions to control bleeding from atony (AWHONN).
Oxytocin (A) adjunct; lochia (C) secondary. Clinical priority: Hemorrhage prevention. Exam tip:
Boggy uterus – massage first.
Question 4: A newborn at 1 minute has Apgar score of 3. What is the priority intervention?
A. Suction mouth and nose
B. Positive pressure ventilation
C. Chest compressions
D. Intubation
Correct Answer: B. Positive pressure ventilation
Rationale: Apgar <4 requires PPV for HR <100 (NRP). Suction (A) for meconium;
compressions (C) HR <60; intubation (D) later. Clinical priority: Resuscitation. Exam tip: Low
Apgar – PPV.
Question 5: A 26-year-old gravida 2, para 1 at 28 weeks has preterm labor. What is the
priority intervention?
A. Tocolytics
B. Betamethasone
C. Magnesium sulfate
D. Bed rest only
Correct Answer: B. Betamethasone
Rationale: Steroids for fetal lung maturity at 24-34 weeks (ACOG). Tocolytics (A) buy time;
magnesium (C) for neuroprotection <32 weeks. Clinical priority: Fetal lung development. Exam
tip: Preterm – steroids first.
Question 6: A 2-day postpartum woman has heavy lochia rubra soaking a pad hourly.
What is the priority action?
A. Fundal massage
B. Assess bladder
C. Administer tranexamic acid
D. Both A and B
Correct Answer: B. Assess bladder
Rationale: Full bladder causes uterine atony; empty bladder first (AWHONN). Massage (A)
follows; tranexamic (C) severe. Clinical priority: Uterine tone. Exam tip: Heavy lochia – bladder
first.
, Question 7: A newborn has a capillary blood glucose of 35 mg/dL at 2 hours. What is the
priority intervention?
A. Breastfeed or formula feed
B. D10W bolus
C. Monitor only
D. Refer to NICU
Correct Answer: A. Breastfeed or formula feed
Rationale: Glucose <40 mg/dL needs feeding; bolus if symptomatic (AAP). Clinical
implication: Repeat in 30 min. Exam tip: Hypoglycemia – feed if >30 mg/dL.
Question 8: A 30-year-old gravida 1 at 8 weeks has vaginal spotting. What is the priority
test?
A. Ultrasound
B. Quantitative hCG
C. Progesterone level
D. Both A and B
Correct Answer: B. Quantitative hCG
Rationale: Serial hCG assesses viability (>50% rise in 48 hours) (ACOG). Ultrasound at >6
weeks; progesterone if ectopic. Clinical implication: Ectopic risk. Exam tip: Spotting – hCG
first.
Question 9: A 6-year-old has a fever, sore throat, and strawberry tongue. What is the
diagnosis?
A. Strep throat
B. Scarlet fever
C. Measles
D. Hand-foot-mouth
Correct Answer: B. Scarlet fever
Rationale: Group A strep with exotoxin causes rash and strawberry tongue (AAP). Clinical
implication: Penicillin. Exam tip: Strawberry tongue – scarlet fever.
Question 10: A 2-week-old has poor feeding and jaundice. What is the priority lab?
A. Bilirubin
B. CBC
C. TSH
D. Both A and C
Correct Answer: A. Bilirubin
Rationale: Jaundice at 2 weeks suggests pathologic; bilirubin >15 mg/dL needs phototherapy
(AAP). TSH for congenital hypothyroidism. Clinical implication: Exchange if high. Exam tip:
Jaundice – bilirubin level.
