MED SURG HESI V2 EXAM
HESI MED - SURG V1 -V7 PREDICTOR
FINAL EXAM REAL EXAM COMPLETE
VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
RATIONALES) |ALREADY GRADED A+
A 62-year-old woman who lives alone tripped on a rug in her home and fractured her hip. Which
predisposing factor most likely contributed to the fracture in the proximal end of her femur?
A.Failing eyesight resulting in an unsafe environment
B.Renal osteodystrophy resulting from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
C.Osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels
D.Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks –
Correct Answer :C. Osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels
A+ TEST BANK 1
, MED SURG HESI V2 EXAM
Rationale:
The most common cause of a fractured hip in older women is osteoporosis, resulting from
reduced calcium in the bones as a result of hormonal changes in the perimenopausal years.
Option A may or may not have contributed to the accident, but eye changes were not involved in
promoting the hip fracture. Option B is not a common condition of older people but is associated
with CKD. Although option D may result in transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or stroke, it will not
result in fragility of the bones, as does osteoporosis.
A female client with a nasogastric tube attached to low suction states that she is nauseated. The
nurse assesses that there has been no drainage through the nasogastric tube in the last 2 hours.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A.Irrigate the nasogastric tube with sterile normal saline.
B.Reposition the client on her side.
C.Advance the nasogastric tube 5 cm.
D.Administer an intravenous antiemetic as prescribed. –
Correct Answer :B. Reposition the client on her side.
Rationale:
The immediate priority is to determine if the tube is functioning correctly, which would then
relieve the client's nausea. The least invasive intervention, repositioning the client, should be
attempted first, followed by options A and C, unless either of these interventions is
contraindicated. If these measures are unsuccessful, the client may require option D.
When developing a discharge teaching plan for a client after the insertion of a permanent
pacemaker, the nurse writes a goal of "The client will verbalize symptoms of pacemaker failure."
Which behavior indicates that the goal has been met?
A.The client demonstrates the procedures to change the rate of the pacemaker using a magnet.
B.The client carries a card in his wallet stating the type and serial number of the pacemaker.
A+ TEST BANK 2
, MED SURG HESI V2 EXAM
C. The client tells the nurse that it is important to report redness and tenderness at the insertion
site. D.The client states that changes in the pulse and feelings of dizziness are significant
changes. –
Correct Answer :D. The client states that changes in the pulse and feelings of dizziness are
significant changes.
Rationale:
Changes in pulse rate and/or rhythm may indicate pacer failure. Feelings of dizziness may be
caused by a decreased heart rate, leading to decreased cardiac output. The rate of a pacemaker
is not changed by a client, although the client may be familiar with this procedure as explained
by his health care provider. Option B is an important step in preparing the client for discharge
but does not demonstrate knowledge of the symptoms of pacer failure. Option C indicates
symptoms of possible incisional infection or irritation but does not indicate pacer failure.
During a health fair, a male client with emphysema tells the nurse that he fatigues easily.
Assessment reveals marked clubbing of the fingernails and an increased anteroposterior chest
diameter. Which instruction is best to provide the client?
A."Pace your activities and schedule rest periods."
B."Increase the amount of oxygen you use at night."
C."Obtain medical evaluation for antibiotic therapy."
D."Reduce your intake of fluids containing caffeine." –
Correct Answer :A."Pace your activities and schedule rest periods."
Rationale:
Manifestations of emphysema include an increase in AP diameter (referred to as a barrel chest),
nail bed clubbing, and fatigue. The nurse can provide instructions to promote energy
management, such as pacing activities and scheduling rest periods. Option B may result in a
decreased drive to breathe. The client is not exhibiting any symptoms of infection, so option C is
not necessary. Option D is less beneficial than option A.
A+ TEST BANK 3
, MED SURG HESI V2 EXAM
The nurse is assessing a 75-year-old client for symptoms of hyperglycemia. Which symptom of
hyperglycemia is an older adult most likely to exhibit?
A. Polyuria
B. Polydipsia
C.Weight loss
D.Infection –
Correct Answer :D. Infection
Rationale:
Signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia in older adults may include fatigue, infection, and
evidence of neuropathy (e.g., sensory changes). The nurse needs to remember that classic signs
and symptoms of hyperglycemia, such as options A, B, and C and polyphagia, may be absent in
older adults.
The nurse is performing hourly neurologic checks for a client with a head injury. Which new
assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
A. A unilateral pupil that is dilated and nonreactive to light
B. Client cries out when awakened by a verbal stimulus
C. Client demonstrates a loss of memory of the events leading up to the injury
D.Onset of nausea, headache, and vertigo –
Correct Answer :A. A unilateral pupil that is dilated and nonreactive to light
Rationale:
Any change in pupil size and reactivity is an indication of increasing intracranial pressure and
should be reported to the health care provider immediately. Option B is a normal response to
being awakened. Options C and D are common manifestations of head injury and are of less
immediacy than option A.
A+ TEST BANK 4
HESI MED - SURG V1 -V7 PREDICTOR
FINAL EXAM REAL EXAM COMPLETE
VERIFIED QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED
RATIONALES) |ALREADY GRADED A+
A 62-year-old woman who lives alone tripped on a rug in her home and fractured her hip. Which
predisposing factor most likely contributed to the fracture in the proximal end of her femur?
A.Failing eyesight resulting in an unsafe environment
B.Renal osteodystrophy resulting from chronic kidney disease (CKD)
C.Osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels
D.Cerebral vessel changes causing transient ischemic attacks –
Correct Answer :C. Osteoporosis resulting from declining hormone levels
A+ TEST BANK 1
, MED SURG HESI V2 EXAM
Rationale:
The most common cause of a fractured hip in older women is osteoporosis, resulting from
reduced calcium in the bones as a result of hormonal changes in the perimenopausal years.
Option A may or may not have contributed to the accident, but eye changes were not involved in
promoting the hip fracture. Option B is not a common condition of older people but is associated
with CKD. Although option D may result in transient ischemic attacks (TIAs) or stroke, it will not
result in fragility of the bones, as does osteoporosis.
A female client with a nasogastric tube attached to low suction states that she is nauseated. The
nurse assesses that there has been no drainage through the nasogastric tube in the last 2 hours.
Which action should the nurse take first?
A.Irrigate the nasogastric tube with sterile normal saline.
B.Reposition the client on her side.
C.Advance the nasogastric tube 5 cm.
D.Administer an intravenous antiemetic as prescribed. –
Correct Answer :B. Reposition the client on her side.
Rationale:
The immediate priority is to determine if the tube is functioning correctly, which would then
relieve the client's nausea. The least invasive intervention, repositioning the client, should be
attempted first, followed by options A and C, unless either of these interventions is
contraindicated. If these measures are unsuccessful, the client may require option D.
When developing a discharge teaching plan for a client after the insertion of a permanent
pacemaker, the nurse writes a goal of "The client will verbalize symptoms of pacemaker failure."
Which behavior indicates that the goal has been met?
A.The client demonstrates the procedures to change the rate of the pacemaker using a magnet.
B.The client carries a card in his wallet stating the type and serial number of the pacemaker.
A+ TEST BANK 2
, MED SURG HESI V2 EXAM
C. The client tells the nurse that it is important to report redness and tenderness at the insertion
site. D.The client states that changes in the pulse and feelings of dizziness are significant
changes. –
Correct Answer :D. The client states that changes in the pulse and feelings of dizziness are
significant changes.
Rationale:
Changes in pulse rate and/or rhythm may indicate pacer failure. Feelings of dizziness may be
caused by a decreased heart rate, leading to decreased cardiac output. The rate of a pacemaker
is not changed by a client, although the client may be familiar with this procedure as explained
by his health care provider. Option B is an important step in preparing the client for discharge
but does not demonstrate knowledge of the symptoms of pacer failure. Option C indicates
symptoms of possible incisional infection or irritation but does not indicate pacer failure.
During a health fair, a male client with emphysema tells the nurse that he fatigues easily.
Assessment reveals marked clubbing of the fingernails and an increased anteroposterior chest
diameter. Which instruction is best to provide the client?
A."Pace your activities and schedule rest periods."
B."Increase the amount of oxygen you use at night."
C."Obtain medical evaluation for antibiotic therapy."
D."Reduce your intake of fluids containing caffeine." –
Correct Answer :A."Pace your activities and schedule rest periods."
Rationale:
Manifestations of emphysema include an increase in AP diameter (referred to as a barrel chest),
nail bed clubbing, and fatigue. The nurse can provide instructions to promote energy
management, such as pacing activities and scheduling rest periods. Option B may result in a
decreased drive to breathe. The client is not exhibiting any symptoms of infection, so option C is
not necessary. Option D is less beneficial than option A.
A+ TEST BANK 3
, MED SURG HESI V2 EXAM
The nurse is assessing a 75-year-old client for symptoms of hyperglycemia. Which symptom of
hyperglycemia is an older adult most likely to exhibit?
A. Polyuria
B. Polydipsia
C.Weight loss
D.Infection –
Correct Answer :D. Infection
Rationale:
Signs and symptoms of hyperglycemia in older adults may include fatigue, infection, and
evidence of neuropathy (e.g., sensory changes). The nurse needs to remember that classic signs
and symptoms of hyperglycemia, such as options A, B, and C and polyphagia, may be absent in
older adults.
The nurse is performing hourly neurologic checks for a client with a head injury. Which new
assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?
A. A unilateral pupil that is dilated and nonreactive to light
B. Client cries out when awakened by a verbal stimulus
C. Client demonstrates a loss of memory of the events leading up to the injury
D.Onset of nausea, headache, and vertigo –
Correct Answer :A. A unilateral pupil that is dilated and nonreactive to light
Rationale:
Any change in pupil size and reactivity is an indication of increasing intracranial pressure and
should be reported to the health care provider immediately. Option B is a normal response to
being awakened. Options C and D are common manifestations of head injury and are of less
immediacy than option A.
A+ TEST BANK 4
