MidTerm Exam Solutions With Verified Answers 2025 Hypersensitivity: Type 1 - Correct Answer Type 1: Allergic reaction, Mediated by IgE, Inflammation due to mast cell degranulation
Local symptoms: -itching -rash Systemic symptoms: -wheezing Most dangerous = anaphylactic reaction systemic response of hypotension, severe bronchoconstriction Main treatment: epinephrine reverses the effects
Hypersensitivity: Type 2 - Correct Answer Type 2: Cytotoxic reaction; tissue specific (ex: thyroid tissue)
Macrophages are the primary effectors cells involved
Can cause tissue damage or alter function
Grave's disease (hyperthyroidism) - example of altering thyroid function, but does not destroy thyroid tissue
Incompatible blood type- example of cell/tissue damage that occurs; severe transfusion reaction occurs and the transfused erythrocytes are destroyed by agglutination or complement-mediated lysis.
Type 1 Hypersensitivity VS. Type 2 Hypersensitivity - Correct Answer Type 1 Hypersensitivity Organ Specific Antibody binds to the antigen on the cell surface
Type 2 Hypersensitivity Not Organ Specific Antibody binds to the soluble antigen outside the cell surface that was released into the blood or body fluids, and the complex is then deposited in the tissues
Hypersensitivity: Type 3 - Examples - Correct Answer Rheumatoid arthritis: Antigen/antibodies are deposited in the joints
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)- very closely related to autoimmunity- antigen/antibodies deposit in organs that cause tissue damage
Hypersensitivity: Type 4 - Correct Answer Delayed response
Does not involve antigen/antibody complexes like Types 1, 2 and 3
Is T-cell mediated
Differentiating Between the Rash of a Type 1 vs. Type 4 Reaction: - Correct Answer Type 1: Immediate hypersensitivity reactions, termed atopic dermatitis, are usually characterized by widely distributed lesions
Type 4: Contact dermatitis (delayed hypersensitivity) consists of lesions only at the site of contact with the allergen
The key determinant is the timing of the rash: -Type 1 = Immediate -Type 4 = Delayed: Several days following contact, ex would be poison ivy
Treatment of Type 4 Rash - Correct Answer A non-severe case of contact dermatitis would be treated with topical corticosteroid.
Why not epinephrine or antihistamines? -Epinephrine is for emergent Type 1 anaphylactic reactions. Antihistamines act on the H1 receptors. Type 4 does not involve mast cells and H1 receptors.
Antibiotics not appropriate since not an infection
Autoimmunity - Correct Answer Autoimmune disease can be familial, Affected family members may not all develop the same disease, but several members may have different disorders characterized by a variety of hypersensitivity reactions, These include autoimmune and allergic reactions Associations with particular autoimmune diseases have been identified for a variety of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) alleles or non-MHC genes
Alloimmunity - Correct Answer General term used to describe when an individual's immune system reacts against antigens on the tissues of other members of the same species.
Examples: Neonatal disease where the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, Transplant rejection, Transfusion reaction
Primary Immunodeficiency - Correct Answer Most primary immune deficiencies are result of single gene defects Something is lacking with the immune system itself.
Example: B-lymphocyte deficiency - one of the most severe forms of a primary immunodeficiency
Secondary Immunodeficiency - Correct Answer Complication of some other physiological condition/disease, Malnutrition one of most common causes worldwide. Example: Pt. with HIV gets pneumocystis carinii
Hematology - Correct Answer Anemias, Involve RBCs, Most of body's iron stores come from the recycling of iron from old RBCs
Iron Deficiency Anemia - Correct Answer Microcytic/Hypochromic Anemia, Caused by disorders of hemoglobin synthesis, particularly iron deficiency, Ferritin is an important measurement that reflects the body's total iron stores, The NP will order a ferritin level to get an idea of the body's total iron stores, Low ferritin reflects anemia
Major Lab Marker for Anemia - Correct Answer Increased RBC distribution width (RDW) is one of the earliest lab markers in developing microcytic or macrocytic anemia
Folate Deficiency - Correct Answer Can cause megaloblastic anemia, Alcoholics can easily get folate deficiency
Ferritin level normal Hgb low Hct low
Vitamin B-12 Deficiency - Correct Answer Fatigue, Dyspnea, Peripheral Neuropathy in BLE (numbness and tingling)
Risk Factors: Older adults, H-pylori infection
Affects Vitamin B-12 absorption
Hemolytic Anemia - Correct Answer Who is at risk?
RBCs destroyed, Mismatched blood types destroy RBCs. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia due to autoantibodies against erythrocytes that the immune system perceives as an antigen and then attacks it. Allergic reaction to a drug causes drug-induced hemolytic anemia
Acute Blood Loss Anemia - Correct Answer Trauma victims who are losing blood, GI bleed (Acute)
Aplastic Anemia - Correct Answer Diagnosis made by blood tests and bone marrow biopsy.
AA is suspected if levels of circulating erythrocytes, leukocytes and platelets diminished: -Granulocyte count less than 500/ uL -Platelet count less than 20,000/ uL -Absolute reticulocyte count less than or equal to 40 x 109/ L
Sickle Cell Anemia - Correct Answer Patients encountered who have sickle cell trait, Inherited a normal Hb gene from one parent and an abnormal Hb gene from the other parent
Thalassemia - Correct Answer Inherited blood disorder causing decreased circulating hemoglobin, Many possible genetic mutations
Heart Failure - Correct Answer Pathophysiology (Wk 2 Discussion) Underlying patho is that there is less cardiac output to meet the body's oxygen demands. Over time there is decreased contractility, decreased stroke volume, increased left ventricular end-diastolic volume (LVEDV) When contractility is decreased, stroke volume falls, and LVEDV increases. This causes dilation of the heart and an increase in preload. Major risk factor is long standing hypertension. Preload = stretch Afterload = resistance
Differentiate between Right and Left Heart Failure - Correct Answer Sometimes right-sided heart failure can occur due to left-sided heart failure due to the back up of fluid from the left side to the right. Sometimes right-sided heart failure can occur without there being left-sided heart failure; this usually occurs because the person has long standing pulmonary issues (COPD). Patients will have classic R. sided heart failure symptoms without L. sided heart failure symptoms: Right JVD distention, Peripheral edema, Hepatosplenomegaly
Stages of Heart Failure (ACC/AHA) - Correct Answer -Stage A: patient has risk factors (CAD) but no symptoms; no structural heart damage -Stage B: patient has structural heart damage (MI), but still has no symptoms -Stage C: patient is symptomatic with alteration in their daily functions due to dyspnea, swelling, etc. This is where the NYHA functional classifications come into play -Stage D: end-stage heart-failure - have maximized medications to treat it. May need heart transplant or pacemaker
NYHA Functional Classifications- It's all about the impact on the patient's activity caused by the HF symptoms: - Correct Answer -Stage I: Mild- no limitation of physical activity; Ordinary physical activity does not cause symptoms -Stage II: Mild- slight limitation of physical activity; comfortable at rest; Ordinary physical activity results in fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea or anginal pain. -Stage III: Moderate- marked decrease in physical activity; marked limitation of physical activity; comfortable at rest. Less than ordinary activity causes fatigue, palpitation, dyspnea or anginal pain. -Stage IV: Severe- inability to carry on any physical activity without discomfort. Symptoms of HF or the anginal syndrome may be present even at rest. If any physical activity undertaken, discomfort is increased.
Heart Valve Disorders - Correct Answer Signs and Symptoms (Edapt Scenarios), Murmur Characteristics, Important to know Anatomy
Aortic Stenosis - Correct Answer Blood backed up into left ventricle causing perfusion problems for the rest of the body
Causes:
Bicuspid aortic valve- congenital condition (only two cusps to the aortic valve which usually has three cusps)- the two cusps get damaged quicker because they are doing the work of three Age related calcification- obstruction/ stenosis Smoking, High BP, Hypertension, Hyperlipid, Diabetes Rheumatic Fever
Signs & Symptoms = SAD S: Syncope A: Angina D: Dyspnea
**Fainting Chest pressure upon exercising Sustained, laterally displaced apical pulse Mid-systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur heard loudest at base and radiating to the neck S4 gallop present**
Aortic Regurgitation - Correct Answer Blood is coming back from the Aorta into the L. Ventricle through the Aortic Valve
Causes Widening or aneurysmal change of the aortic annulus (ring of fibrous tissue surrounding the aorta) Endocarditis Rheumatic Fever
Signs & Symptoms Fatigue Syncope SOB Palpitations Widened Pulse Pressure L. Ventricular Dilation Early diastolic murmur along left sternal border
**Shortness of breath that progressively worsens High pitched early diastolic murmur heard loudest at left lower sternal border Diastolic rumbling sound at the heart's apex Systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur heard at the left upper sternal border A chest x-ray may show signs of pulmonary edema and cardiomegaly**
Mitral Stenosis - Correct Answer Blood is going to back up into the L. Atrium and Lungs
Causes Rheumatic Fever / Rheumatic Heart Disease Endocarditis
Signs & Symptoms Fatigue SOB Exercise intolerance Cough L. Atrial enlargement Pulmonary congestion/edema Diastolic rumble Opening snap before Diastolic rumble
**As mitral stenosis progresses, symptoms of decreased CO occur, especially during exertion Shortness of breath on activity Pounding/racing heart Associated w/ history of Rheumatic HD A low-pitched murmur auscultated at the heart's apex JVD and bilateral crackles in lung bases noted ECG demonstrates A-FIB and Left Ventricular Hypertrophy**
Mitral Regurgitation - Correct Answer Blood goes from L. Ventricle to L. Atrium and then to the Lungs
Causes - Anything that causes LV dilation Remodeling process (post MI) Dilated cardiomyopthathy Rheumatic Fever/ Rheumatic Heart Disease Endocarditis Papillary muscle dysfunction/rupture/ chordae tendinae Calcification of the valve/around the valve
Signs & Symptoms Acute Chronic
**Shortness of breath JVD, Crackles in bilateral lung bases Blowing pansystolic murmur heard best at heart's apex and radiates to back and axilla**
Obstructive vs. Restrictive Pulmonary Disease - Correct Answer Obstructive: decreased FEV1 indicates airway obstruction along with low FEV1/FEV ratio 56%
Restrictive: FEV1/FVC ratio above 70%, Review EDapt examples
Asthma - Correct Answer Airways constricted
Intrinsic: triggered by something internal such as anxiety
Extrinsic: triggered by something in outside environment- something in the air (dust mites/pet dander)
In mildest form of asthma (intermittent), short acting beta2-agonist inhalers are prescribed
Mild-persistent asthma will have night symptoms 3-4 days a month
COPD - Correct Answer Diagnosis based on Hx of symptoms, physical exam, chest imaging, pulmonary function tests and blood gas analysis Pulmonary function testing reveals airway obstruction (decreased FEV1) that is progressive and unresponsive to bronchodilators, Emphysema, Chronic bronchitis
COPD Staging According to GOLD Guidelines- Based on degree of airway limitation - Correct Answer Gold 1: Mild: FEV1≥80% predicted Gold 2: Moderate: 50% ≤FEV1 80% predicted Gold 3: Severe: 30% ≤FEV1 50% predicted Gold 4: Very Severe: FEV 30% predicted
Emphysema - Correct Answer Damage occurs in the alveoli, Impairs gas exchange, Issue is in expiration- they can get air in but cannot get air out Air trapping, Pursed lip-breathing Increased A&P diameter, Barrel chest
Chronic Bronchitis - Correct Answer Productive cough with copious amounts of sputum dyspnea wheezing rhonchi and cyanosis of the skin and mucous membranes Damage occurs in the airway- not the alveoli, Mucous Plugs
Forced Vital Capacity (FVC) - Correct Answer Normal 80-120%
The FVC measures the volume of air in the lungs that can be exhaled.
Patient inhales as deep as possible and then exhales as long and as forcefully as possible.
Obstructive: Will be decreased or normal Restrictive: Will be decreased
Forced Expiratory Volume in 1 second (FEV1) - Correct Answer Normal 80-120%
Amount of air forcefully exhaled from the lungs in the first second.
The patient inhales and forcefully exhales as fast as possible.
Obstructive: Will be decreased Restrictive: Will be decreased
FEV1/FVC ratio - Correct Answer Determines if the pattern is obstructive, restrictive or normal
Normal is 70% or less than the lower limit of normal for the patient
This is a calculated ratio that represents the proportion of a person's vital capacity that they are able to expire in the first second of forced expiration to the full, forced vital capacity.
Obstructive: Less than 70% Restrictive: Normal or 70%
Diffusing capacity - Correct Answer The diffusing capacity is simply how well the lungs are able to exchange gas
Residual volume (RV) - Correct Answer RV is the amount of air that remains in the lungs after a forceful exhalation
Total Lung Capacity (TLC) - Correct Answer RV + FVC = TLC
Normal range is 80-120% of predicted
Obstructive: 120% (represents hyperinflation) Restrictive: 80%
Microcytic anemia - Correct Answer (MCV80 fL) describes RBCs that are small.
Iron deficiency Sideroblastic Thalassemia Anemia of chronic disease
Macrocytic anemia - Correct Answer (MCV100 fL) describes RBCs that are large.
B12 deficiency (pernicious anemia) Folate deficiency
Normocytic anemia - Correct Answer (MCV 80-99 fL) describes RBCs that are normal in size.
Anemia of inflammation and chronic disease Hereditary spherocytosis G6PD deficiency Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
Hypochromic anemia - Correct Answer RBCs with less hemoglobin than normal. As a result, the RBCs appear pale in color (MCHC is low).
Hyperchromic anemia - Correct Answer RBCs with more hemoglobin than normal. As a result, the RBCs appear a dark hue or red than normal cells (MCHC is high).
Normochromic anemia - Correct Answer RBCs that have a normal amount of hemoglobin. As a result, the RBCs appear neither pale nor dark (MCHC is normal).
Decreased tissue oxygenation from anemia can manifest as signs and symptoms of the following: - Correct Answer Severe fatigue Pallor Weakness Dyspnea Dizziness
Cardiac Output (CO) - Correct Answer The amount of blood that the heart pumps in 1 minute. CO is also known as cardiac contractility.
CO=heart rate (HR) x stroke volume (SV).
Stroke Volume (SV) - Correct Answer The volume of blood pumped out of the left ventricle during each systolic cardiac contraction.
Afterload - Correct Answer The force, or load, which the heart must contract against in order to pump blood.
Afterload is also known as systemic vascular resistance (SVR).
Preload - Correct Answer The amount of stretch that the cardiac muscle exhibits at the end of ventricular filling.
Right-sided Heart Failure - Correct Answer S/Sx: Jugular vein distention Hepatosplenomegaly Peripheral edema CorPulmonale Tricuspid valve damage
Right ventricle superior vena cava (preload) pulmonary artery (afterload)
Causes of right heart failure include: 1) pulmonary disease that causes pulmonary hypertension. This is the most common cause; 2) right ventricular myocardial infarction (MI), which weakens the cardiac muscle; 3) right ventricular hypertrophy (secondary to cardiac damage); 4) tricuspid valve damage (causing backflow of the blood into the right atrium or right ventricle after ejection); 5) secondary failure as a result of left heart failure due to the build-up of pressure in the damage left ventricle
Left-Sided Heart Failure - Correct Answer S/Sx: Increased left ventricular afterload Decreased ejection fraction Increased left ventricular preload Pulmonary edema Dyspnea
Left ventricle
Pulmonary vein (preload) Aorta (afterload)
This increased pressure will force fluid from the pulmonary capillaries into the pulmonary tissues, which essentially floods those areas. The result is pulmonary edema and dyspnea. If left ventricular heart failure is unresolved, volume and pressure will continue to build until it reaches the right side of the heart, contributing to right heart failure as well
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NR507 Advanced Pathophysiology
MidTerm
Hypersensitivity: Type 1 - Correct Answer Type 1: Allergic reaction, Mediated by IgE,
Inflammation due to mast cell degranulation
Local symptoms:
-itching
-rash
Systemic symptoms:
-wheezing
Most dangerous = anaphylactic reaction
systemic response of hypotension, severe bronchoconstriction
Main treatment: epinephrine reverses the effects
Hypersensitivity: Type 2 - Correct Answer Type 2: Cytotoxic reaction; tissue specific
(ex: thyroid tissue)
Macrophages are the primary effectors cells involved
Can cause tissue damage or alter function
Grave's disease (hyperthyroidism) - example of altering thyroid function, but does not
destroy thyroid tissue
Incompatible blood type- example of cell/tissue damage that occurs; severe
transfusion reaction occurs and the transfused erythrocytes are destroyed by
agglutination or complement-mediated lysis.
Type 1 Hypersensitivity VS. Type 2 Hypersensitivity - Correct Answer Type 1
Hypersensitivity
Organ Specific
Antibody binds to the antigen on the cell surface
Type 2 Hypersensitivity
Not Organ Specific
Antibody binds to the soluble antigen outside the cell surface that was released into
the blood or body fluids, and the complex is then deposited in the tissues
Hypersensitivity: Type 3 - Examples - Correct Answer Rheumatoid arthritis:
Antigen/antibodies are deposited in the joints
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)- very closely related to autoimmunity-
antigen/antibodies deposit in organs that cause tissue damage
Hypersensitivity: Type 4 - Correct Answer Delayed response
, Does not involve antigen/antibody complexes like Types 1, 2 and 3
Is T-cell mediated
Differentiating Between the Rash of a Type 1 vs. Type 4 Reaction: - Correct Answer
Type 1: Immediate hypersensitivity reactions, termed atopic dermatitis, are usually
characterized by widely distributed lesions
Type 4: Contact dermatitis (delayed hypersensitivity) consists of lesions only at the
site of contact with the allergen
The key determinant is the timing of the rash:
-Type 1 = Immediate
-Type 4 = Delayed: Several days following contact, ex would be poison ivy
Treatment of Type 4 Rash - Correct Answer A non-severe case of contact dermatitis
would be treated with topical corticosteroid.
Why not epinephrine or antihistamines?
-Epinephrine is for emergent Type 1 anaphylactic reactions. Antihistamines act on
the H1 receptors. Type 4 does not involve mast cells and H1 receptors.
Antibiotics not appropriate since not an infection
Autoimmunity - Correct Answer Autoimmune disease can be familial, Affected family
members may not all develop the same disease, but several members may have
different disorders characterized by a variety of hypersensitivity reactions, These
include autoimmune and allergic reactions
Associations with particular autoimmune diseases have been identified for a variety
of major histocompatibility complex (MHC) alleles or non-MHC genes
Alloimmunity - Correct Answer General term used to describe when an individual's
immune system reacts against antigens on the tissues of other members of the
same species.
Examples: Neonatal disease where the maternal immune system becomes
sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, Transplant rejection, Transfusion
reaction
Primary Immunodeficiency - Correct Answer Most primary immune deficiencies are
result of single gene defects
Something is lacking with the immune system itself.
Example: B-lymphocyte deficiency - one of the most severe forms of a primary
immunodeficiency
Secondary Immunodeficiency - Correct Answer Complication of some other
physiological condition/disease, Malnutrition one of most common causes worldwide.
Example: Pt. with HIV gets pneumocystis carinii