OCS TEST QUESTIONS WITH ALL CORRECT & 100%
VERIFIED ANSWERS|ACTUAL COMPLETE EXAM|
ALREADY GRADED A+
A 33 y/o male is referred to your clinic for knee pain that started 2 weeks ago after an initial injury
that occurred during a soccer game. He reports a 'step and twist' mechanism of injury. He was able
to walk off the field and his knee became swollen over the next couple of hours. With ice and rest he
is improving but still having pain when he walks prolonged distances and has been unable to return
to sports. He has a mild effusion. His range of motion: full extension but has increased pain with
flexion at end range. Resisted motions are mildly painful but strong, knee flexion is more painful than
knee extension. Functionally squatting is painful. His knee is tender to palpation, particularly along
the joint line and he also has pain with patella compression.
Given the above scenario, what is the most likely diagnosis? ✔Correct Answer-Medial meniscal
tear- more often report effusion that occurs quickly (10 minutes) as opposed to several hours, often
cannot walk off the field, etc.
A 33 y/o male is referred to your clinic for knee pain that started 2 weeks ago after an initial injury
that occurred during a soccer game. He reports a 'step and twist' mechanism of injury. He was able
to walk off the field and his knee became swollen over the next couple of hours. With ice and rest he
is improving but still having pain when he walks prolonged distances and has been unable to return
to sports. He has a mild effusion. His range of motion: full extension but has increased pain with
flexion at end range. Resisted motions are mildly painful but strong, knee flexion is more painful than
knee extension. Functionally squatting is painful. His knee is tender to palpation, particularly along
the joint line and he also has pain with patella compression.
As part of your examination you want to rule out an ACL tear. Which of the following tests is most
appropriate? ✔Correct Answer-Lachman's Test
Your are requested to provide crutch training for a 15 y/o female who reported to the ER last night
with a tibia fracture after a bicycling accident. The fracture was treated with closed reduction and a
short leg cast and the patient was prescribed Percocet for pain management. When your arrive at
the patient's room she appears distressed and reports 9/10 pain that has been increasing from a
baseline of 7/10 when she got to the ER. Her knee range of motion is normal, her ankle is
immobilized and she can move her toes. When you discuss the patient's pain level with the patient's
nurse, he informs you that the Orthopedic physician on her case will be doing rounds in about an
hour, and that she had her last Percocet approximately 30 minutes ago.
In response to this information, the physical therapist should: ✔Correct Answer-Page the
orthopedic physician and inform him of the patient's symptoms. Recommend immediate
investigation.- Without urgent evaluation of this potential compartment syndrome the muscle and
tissues of the affected compartment can become necrotic, resulting in severe disability.
You are concerned about a possible DVT in a patient that is 1 week s/p ACL surgery.
Question:
Which of the following is the feared adverse outcome from an undiagnosed DVT?
Cellulitis
Pulmonary embolism and/or death
VERIFIED ANSWERS|ACTUAL COMPLETE EXAM|
ALREADY GRADED A+
A 33 y/o male is referred to your clinic for knee pain that started 2 weeks ago after an initial injury
that occurred during a soccer game. He reports a 'step and twist' mechanism of injury. He was able
to walk off the field and his knee became swollen over the next couple of hours. With ice and rest he
is improving but still having pain when he walks prolonged distances and has been unable to return
to sports. He has a mild effusion. His range of motion: full extension but has increased pain with
flexion at end range. Resisted motions are mildly painful but strong, knee flexion is more painful than
knee extension. Functionally squatting is painful. His knee is tender to palpation, particularly along
the joint line and he also has pain with patella compression.
Given the above scenario, what is the most likely diagnosis? ✔Correct Answer-Medial meniscal
tear- more often report effusion that occurs quickly (10 minutes) as opposed to several hours, often
cannot walk off the field, etc.
A 33 y/o male is referred to your clinic for knee pain that started 2 weeks ago after an initial injury
that occurred during a soccer game. He reports a 'step and twist' mechanism of injury. He was able
to walk off the field and his knee became swollen over the next couple of hours. With ice and rest he
is improving but still having pain when he walks prolonged distances and has been unable to return
to sports. He has a mild effusion. His range of motion: full extension but has increased pain with
flexion at end range. Resisted motions are mildly painful but strong, knee flexion is more painful than
knee extension. Functionally squatting is painful. His knee is tender to palpation, particularly along
the joint line and he also has pain with patella compression.
As part of your examination you want to rule out an ACL tear. Which of the following tests is most
appropriate? ✔Correct Answer-Lachman's Test
Your are requested to provide crutch training for a 15 y/o female who reported to the ER last night
with a tibia fracture after a bicycling accident. The fracture was treated with closed reduction and a
short leg cast and the patient was prescribed Percocet for pain management. When your arrive at
the patient's room she appears distressed and reports 9/10 pain that has been increasing from a
baseline of 7/10 when she got to the ER. Her knee range of motion is normal, her ankle is
immobilized and she can move her toes. When you discuss the patient's pain level with the patient's
nurse, he informs you that the Orthopedic physician on her case will be doing rounds in about an
hour, and that she had her last Percocet approximately 30 minutes ago.
In response to this information, the physical therapist should: ✔Correct Answer-Page the
orthopedic physician and inform him of the patient's symptoms. Recommend immediate
investigation.- Without urgent evaluation of this potential compartment syndrome the muscle and
tissues of the affected compartment can become necrotic, resulting in severe disability.
You are concerned about a possible DVT in a patient that is 1 week s/p ACL surgery.
Question:
Which of the following is the feared adverse outcome from an undiagnosed DVT?
Cellulitis
Pulmonary embolism and/or death
