NRNP 6675 Final Exam
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1. Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Select all that apply: Rapid dose escalation; parental route of administration; higher potency typical antipsy-
chotics
2. Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as?: B) Gender Discor-
dance
3. Antipsychotic medication provides D2 blockage in the meso-coritcal pathway
causing which of the following effects?: B) Increases EPS
Incorrect: reduces negative s/s, causes prolactinemia, reduces positive symptoms
4. Phencyclidine (PCP) and ketamine exert their unique behavioral effects by
blocking which of the following receptors?: D) NMDA type receptors
Incorrect: GABA, serotonin, dopamine "receptors"
5. The diagnosis used to describe a syndrome characterized by specific s/s
resulting from recent ingestion or exposure to a substance is known as which
of the folllowing?: C) Substance use disorder
Incorrect: substance intox, substance withdrawal, all of the above
6. Abnormal involuntary movements in a rhythmic pattern affecting the face,
mouth, tongue jaw is known as which of the following?: C) Tardive dyskinesia
Incorrect: akathisia, dystonia, EPS
7. A deeply held belief despite evidence to the contrary, lasting at least 1 month,
without prominent hallucinations, with functional impairment that relates to
the delusional system disorder called?: Delusional disorder
8. Which of the following is true about preoccupation with castration?: A) This can
be serious and life threatening if castration is carried out without medical supervision
Incorrect: consistent with transvestiatic disorder, other specified paraphillic disorder, or sexual machochism disorder
9. Which of the following is a system that provides a uniform language for
describing medical and surgical procedures and diagnostics services rendered
by clinicians?: CPT
, NRNP 6675 Final Exam
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Incorrect: HIPPA, DSM5-, DRG
10. A patient on Chlorpromazine states his orgasm is dry and afterwards he will
commonly have milky urine. The APRN realizes this is which of the following?: A)
This is likely a harmless response to the Chlorpromazine
"Thorazine"
11. A condition which results from absence of second female sex chromosome
(XO) and is associated with web neck, dwarfism, cubitus valgus and infertility
is known as which of the following?: B) Turners Syndrome
Turners syndrome:
tx involves hormone therapy; fertility treatments for women when they decide to have a baby
12. Which of the following would be characterized as a negative s/s of schizo-
phrenia?: B & C only
B) impaired social and occupational functioning
C) isolation and impaired self-care
13. Which of the following are keys to distinguishing OCD from psychosis?: Patients
with OCD can almost always acknowledge the unreasonable nature of their symptoms
14. A federal program administered nationally and locally which covers enrolled
individuals 65+ who pays premiums and disabled individuals: Both A& B (Medicare and
Medicaid)
15. Having an adequate legal description of nurse practitioner (NP) scope of
practice according to state law is important for which of the following reasons?-
: All of the above (to avoid any charges of practicing medicine without a license, to place accountability for both benefits
and harm to patients squarely on the NP, to get reimbursed for physician services when provided by a NP
16. Which of the following is the most widely consumed psychoactive sub-
stance?: B) Caffeine
Incorrect: alcohol, heroin, cannabis
, NRNP 6675 Final Exam
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17. Which of the following is used to tx TD?: None of the above
(cogentin, artane, catapress)
18. The APRN consensus model did which of the following?: B & C
B) adult and gerontology were merged and identified as PCP or acute care
C) psychiatric mental health foci were stipulated as across the lifespan
19. Which of the following behaviors are associated with an alcohol blood level
of 0.05%?: B) Thought judgement and restraints are impaired
20. According to HIPPA, which of the following must the NP share their NPI with?
Check all the above: A) Health Plans
B) Other providers
C) Any entity that may need it for a billing purpose
21. A patient presents with delusions, disorganized thoughts, and speech with
poor self care all of which has persisted for the past 7 months. The APRN
knowns this presentation means what diagnosis?: Schizophrenia
22. Major neurotransmitters possibly involved in developing substance abuse
and substance dependence are which of the following?: A) Dopamine
Incorrect: GABA, serotonin, A& B only
23. The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia, which of the following?: A) Schizo-
phrenia results from too much dopaminergic activity
incorrect: results from a deprivation of dopamine
24. A patient reports a panic attack several years ago in an elevator and since
then has avoided elevators. The pt meets the criteria for:: B) Specific phobia
25. A patient with a substance use disorder who does not meet clinical criteria
for hospitalization but lacks sufficient social and vocational skills and lack
substance-free social supports is to: D) All of the above
(Residential tx, partial hospitalization, outpt tx)
26. Obscene phone calling to an unsuspecting partner for sexual arousal is
known as?: C) Telephone Scatologia
, NRNP 6675 Final Exam
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_dirfy6
(not telephillia, partialism, normal adolescent prank)
27. The main psychological difference between fear and anxiety is best de-
scribed by which of these statements?: B) Anxiety is insidious, fear is sudden
28. A diffuse, unpleasant, vague sense of apprehension often accompanied by
autonomic symptoms varies upon persons is commonly known as which of the
following?: C) Normal anxiety
(incorrect- fear, stress, pathological anxiety
29. If a pregnancy begins while the woman is taking high doses of methadone
and withdrawal is desired during which trimester is the least hazardous?: D)
Withdrawal from methadone should never be done while the woman is pregnant
30. Neurochemical or neurophysiological changes in the body that results from
the repeated administration of a drug is known as which of the following?: C)
Neuroadaption
incorrect: cross-tolerance, neurotransformation, neurocognitive adjustment
31. The recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the physical and psychologi-
cal suffering of another person is known as which of the following?: C) Sexual sadism
32. Which of the following is not consistent with the onset of OCD?: D) The onset of
OCD is typically preceded by OCD personality traits
True answers about OCD:
-more than 1/2 of pts with OCD have a sudden onset of symptoms
-the onset of symptoms for about 50-70% of patients occurs after a stressful event
-most patients keep their symptoms secret initially
33. The recurrent urge to expose one's genitals to a stranger is known ass which
of the following?: C) Exhibitionism
34. Which of the following patients would be appropriate for hospitalization for
substance use disorder? Select all that apply: D) A&B only
(Patients who have a substance overdose who cannot be safely tx in an outpt setting & pts who are at risk for severe or
medically complicated withdrawal symptoms
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_dirfy6
1. Which of the following are risk factors for neuroleptic malignant syndrome?
Select all that apply: Rapid dose escalation; parental route of administration; higher potency typical antipsy-
chotics
2. Discrepancy between anatomical sex and gender is known as?: B) Gender Discor-
dance
3. Antipsychotic medication provides D2 blockage in the meso-coritcal pathway
causing which of the following effects?: B) Increases EPS
Incorrect: reduces negative s/s, causes prolactinemia, reduces positive symptoms
4. Phencyclidine (PCP) and ketamine exert their unique behavioral effects by
blocking which of the following receptors?: D) NMDA type receptors
Incorrect: GABA, serotonin, dopamine "receptors"
5. The diagnosis used to describe a syndrome characterized by specific s/s
resulting from recent ingestion or exposure to a substance is known as which
of the folllowing?: C) Substance use disorder
Incorrect: substance intox, substance withdrawal, all of the above
6. Abnormal involuntary movements in a rhythmic pattern affecting the face,
mouth, tongue jaw is known as which of the following?: C) Tardive dyskinesia
Incorrect: akathisia, dystonia, EPS
7. A deeply held belief despite evidence to the contrary, lasting at least 1 month,
without prominent hallucinations, with functional impairment that relates to
the delusional system disorder called?: Delusional disorder
8. Which of the following is true about preoccupation with castration?: A) This can
be serious and life threatening if castration is carried out without medical supervision
Incorrect: consistent with transvestiatic disorder, other specified paraphillic disorder, or sexual machochism disorder
9. Which of the following is a system that provides a uniform language for
describing medical and surgical procedures and diagnostics services rendered
by clinicians?: CPT
, NRNP 6675 Final Exam
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_dirfy6
Incorrect: HIPPA, DSM5-, DRG
10. A patient on Chlorpromazine states his orgasm is dry and afterwards he will
commonly have milky urine. The APRN realizes this is which of the following?: A)
This is likely a harmless response to the Chlorpromazine
"Thorazine"
11. A condition which results from absence of second female sex chromosome
(XO) and is associated with web neck, dwarfism, cubitus valgus and infertility
is known as which of the following?: B) Turners Syndrome
Turners syndrome:
tx involves hormone therapy; fertility treatments for women when they decide to have a baby
12. Which of the following would be characterized as a negative s/s of schizo-
phrenia?: B & C only
B) impaired social and occupational functioning
C) isolation and impaired self-care
13. Which of the following are keys to distinguishing OCD from psychosis?: Patients
with OCD can almost always acknowledge the unreasonable nature of their symptoms
14. A federal program administered nationally and locally which covers enrolled
individuals 65+ who pays premiums and disabled individuals: Both A& B (Medicare and
Medicaid)
15. Having an adequate legal description of nurse practitioner (NP) scope of
practice according to state law is important for which of the following reasons?-
: All of the above (to avoid any charges of practicing medicine without a license, to place accountability for both benefits
and harm to patients squarely on the NP, to get reimbursed for physician services when provided by a NP
16. Which of the following is the most widely consumed psychoactive sub-
stance?: B) Caffeine
Incorrect: alcohol, heroin, cannabis
, NRNP 6675 Final Exam
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_dirfy6
17. Which of the following is used to tx TD?: None of the above
(cogentin, artane, catapress)
18. The APRN consensus model did which of the following?: B & C
B) adult and gerontology were merged and identified as PCP or acute care
C) psychiatric mental health foci were stipulated as across the lifespan
19. Which of the following behaviors are associated with an alcohol blood level
of 0.05%?: B) Thought judgement and restraints are impaired
20. According to HIPPA, which of the following must the NP share their NPI with?
Check all the above: A) Health Plans
B) Other providers
C) Any entity that may need it for a billing purpose
21. A patient presents with delusions, disorganized thoughts, and speech with
poor self care all of which has persisted for the past 7 months. The APRN
knowns this presentation means what diagnosis?: Schizophrenia
22. Major neurotransmitters possibly involved in developing substance abuse
and substance dependence are which of the following?: A) Dopamine
Incorrect: GABA, serotonin, A& B only
23. The dopamine hypothesis of schizophrenia, which of the following?: A) Schizo-
phrenia results from too much dopaminergic activity
incorrect: results from a deprivation of dopamine
24. A patient reports a panic attack several years ago in an elevator and since
then has avoided elevators. The pt meets the criteria for:: B) Specific phobia
25. A patient with a substance use disorder who does not meet clinical criteria
for hospitalization but lacks sufficient social and vocational skills and lack
substance-free social supports is to: D) All of the above
(Residential tx, partial hospitalization, outpt tx)
26. Obscene phone calling to an unsuspecting partner for sexual arousal is
known as?: C) Telephone Scatologia
, NRNP 6675 Final Exam
Study online at https://quizlet.com/_dirfy6
(not telephillia, partialism, normal adolescent prank)
27. The main psychological difference between fear and anxiety is best de-
scribed by which of these statements?: B) Anxiety is insidious, fear is sudden
28. A diffuse, unpleasant, vague sense of apprehension often accompanied by
autonomic symptoms varies upon persons is commonly known as which of the
following?: C) Normal anxiety
(incorrect- fear, stress, pathological anxiety
29. If a pregnancy begins while the woman is taking high doses of methadone
and withdrawal is desired during which trimester is the least hazardous?: D)
Withdrawal from methadone should never be done while the woman is pregnant
30. Neurochemical or neurophysiological changes in the body that results from
the repeated administration of a drug is known as which of the following?: C)
Neuroadaption
incorrect: cross-tolerance, neurotransformation, neurocognitive adjustment
31. The recurrent and intense sexual arousal from the physical and psychologi-
cal suffering of another person is known as which of the following?: C) Sexual sadism
32. Which of the following is not consistent with the onset of OCD?: D) The onset of
OCD is typically preceded by OCD personality traits
True answers about OCD:
-more than 1/2 of pts with OCD have a sudden onset of symptoms
-the onset of symptoms for about 50-70% of patients occurs after a stressful event
-most patients keep their symptoms secret initially
33. The recurrent urge to expose one's genitals to a stranger is known ass which
of the following?: C) Exhibitionism
34. Which of the following patients would be appropriate for hospitalization for
substance use disorder? Select all that apply: D) A&B only
(Patients who have a substance overdose who cannot be safely tx in an outpt setting & pts who are at risk for severe or
medically complicated withdrawal symptoms
