ATI RN Pharmacology Proctored Exam
2025 – Actual Exam Questions with
Correct Answers | Test Bank | Graded A+ |
Latest Edition
Question 1:
A nurse is preparing to administer atenolol to a client with hypertension. Which of the following
findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication for this medication?
A) Heart rate 56 bpm
B) Blood pressure 142/88 mm Hg
C) Respiratory rate 18 breaths/min
D) Urine output 40 mL/hr
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia; a heart rate below 60 bpm is a
contraindication requiring the nurse to withhold the dose and notify the provider. Option B
indicates hypertension needing treatment. Option C is within normal limits. Option D is adequate
renal function.
Question 2:
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for propranolol for migraine prophylaxis.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include regarding administration?
A) "Take the medication with a meal to enhance absorption."
B) "Avoid abrupt discontinuation to prevent rebound hypertension."
C) "Expect immediate relief from migraine pain."
D) "Increase the dose if you miss a scheduled time."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abruptly stopping propranolol, a nonselective beta-blocker, can lead to rebound
tachycardia or hypertension; gradual tapering is required. Option A is incorrect as food does not
significantly affect absorption. Option C is wrong because it takes weeks for prophylactic effect.
Option D risks overdose.
Question 3:
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is to receive metoprolol. Which of the
following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider prior to administration?
,A) Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L
B) Blood glucose 110 mg/dL
C) Heart rate 62 bpm
D) Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-1 selective blocker, can exacerbate bradycardia; a heart rate
below 60 bpm is a concern. Option A is normal. Option B is within acceptable limits. Option D
indicates mild renal impairment but is not an immediate contraindication for this drug.
Question 4:
A nurse is caring for a client receiving albuterol via nebulizer for an acute asthma exacerbation.
Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for?
A) Bradycardia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Constipation
D) Urinary retention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol, a short-acting beta-2 agonist, shifts potassium into cells, causing transient
hypokalemia. Option A is associated with beta-blockers. Option C is linked to anticholinergics.
Option D is an effect of alpha-1 agonists.
Question 5:
A nurse is administering epinephrine subcutaneously to a client experiencing anaphylaxis.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take after administration?
A) Place the client in a supine position.
B) Monitor for rebound hypotension.
C) Administer a beta-blocker next.
D) Encourage oral fluid intake.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Epinephrine, an alpha and beta agonist, causes vasoconstriction that can lead to
rebound hypotension after the effect wears off; monitoring is essential. Option A is incorrect as
semi-Fowler's is preferred to prevent aspiration. Option C would counteract benefits. Option D is
inappropriate during acute phase.
Question 6:
A nurse is teaching a client about pilocarpine eye drops for glaucoma. Which of the following
statements by the client indicates understanding of potential side effects?
,A) "I may experience blurred vision temporarily."
B) "I should expect dry mouth as a common effect."
C) "My heart rate will increase with use."
D) "I can drive immediately after instillation."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pilocarpine, a cholinergic agonist, causes miosis and ciliary spasm leading to
temporary blurred vision. Option B is an anticholinergic effect. Option C is adrenergic. Option D
is unsafe due to vision impairment.
Question 7:
A nurse is preparing to administer bethanechol to a client with postoperative urinary retention.
Which of the following client assessments should the nurse perform prior to administration?
A) Blood pressure
B) Respiratory rate
C) Urine specific gravity
D) Bowel sounds
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bethanechol, a cholinergic agonist, stimulates GI motility and can cause cramps or
diarrhea; assessing bowel sounds identifies risks. Option A is for antihypertensives. Option B is
unrelated. Option C assesses concentration, not primary.
Question 8:
A nurse is caring for a client receiving ipratropium bromide inhaler for COPD. Which of the
following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent adverse effects?
A) "Rinse your mouth after each use."
B) "Take with food to reduce nausea."
C) "Monitor for urinary hesitancy."
D) "Avoid alcohol consumption."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ipratropium, an anticholinergic, can cause urinary retention, especially in males with
prostate enlargement; monitoring is key. Option A is for corticosteroids. Option B is for oral
meds. Option D is for CNS depressants.
Question 9:
A nurse is administering atropine IV to a client with symptomatic bradycardia. Which of the
following findings indicates a therapeutic response?
A) Heart rate increase to 72 bpm
, B) Blood pressure decrease
C) Dry mucous membranes
D) Pupil dilation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic, blocks vagal effects to increase heart rate in
bradycardia. Option B indicates hypotension needing intervention. Options C and D are side
effects, not therapeutic.
Question 10:
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for midodrine for orthostatic
hypotension. Which of the following adverse effects should the client report immediately?
A) Supine hypertension
B) Weight gain
C) Dry mouth
D) Insomnia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Midodrine, an alpha-1 agonist, causes vasoconstriction that can lead to severe
supine hypertension; immediate reporting prevents stroke risk. Options B-D are minor or
unrelated.
Question 11:
A nurse is preparing to administer lisinopril to a client with heart failure. Which of the following
laboratory values should the nurse check prior to administration?
A) Serum creatinine
B) Blood glucose
C) Hemoglobin
D) Platelet count
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause acute kidney injury; baseline creatinine
assesses renal function. Option B is for antidiabetics. Options C and D are unrelated.
Question 12:
A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which of the following foods should the
client limit to maintain therapeutic INR?
A) Leafy green vegetables
B) Citrus fruits
C) Whole grains
2025 – Actual Exam Questions with
Correct Answers | Test Bank | Graded A+ |
Latest Edition
Question 1:
A nurse is preparing to administer atenolol to a client with hypertension. Which of the following
findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication for this medication?
A) Heart rate 56 bpm
B) Blood pressure 142/88 mm Hg
C) Respiratory rate 18 breaths/min
D) Urine output 40 mL/hr
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atenolol is a beta-blocker that can cause bradycardia; a heart rate below 60 bpm is a
contraindication requiring the nurse to withhold the dose and notify the provider. Option B
indicates hypertension needing treatment. Option C is within normal limits. Option D is adequate
renal function.
Question 2:
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for propranolol for migraine prophylaxis.
Which of the following instructions should the nurse include regarding administration?
A) "Take the medication with a meal to enhance absorption."
B) "Avoid abrupt discontinuation to prevent rebound hypertension."
C) "Expect immediate relief from migraine pain."
D) "Increase the dose if you miss a scheduled time."
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Abruptly stopping propranolol, a nonselective beta-blocker, can lead to rebound
tachycardia or hypertension; gradual tapering is required. Option A is incorrect as food does not
significantly affect absorption. Option C is wrong because it takes weeks for prophylactic effect.
Option D risks overdose.
Question 3:
A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who is to receive metoprolol. Which of the
following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider prior to administration?
,A) Serum potassium 4.2 mEq/L
B) Blood glucose 110 mg/dL
C) Heart rate 62 bpm
D) Serum creatinine 1.8 mg/dL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-1 selective blocker, can exacerbate bradycardia; a heart rate
below 60 bpm is a concern. Option A is normal. Option B is within acceptable limits. Option D
indicates mild renal impairment but is not an immediate contraindication for this drug.
Question 4:
A nurse is caring for a client receiving albuterol via nebulizer for an acute asthma exacerbation.
Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for?
A) Bradycardia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Constipation
D) Urinary retention
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Albuterol, a short-acting beta-2 agonist, shifts potassium into cells, causing transient
hypokalemia. Option A is associated with beta-blockers. Option C is linked to anticholinergics.
Option D is an effect of alpha-1 agonists.
Question 5:
A nurse is administering epinephrine subcutaneously to a client experiencing anaphylaxis.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take after administration?
A) Place the client in a supine position.
B) Monitor for rebound hypotension.
C) Administer a beta-blocker next.
D) Encourage oral fluid intake.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Epinephrine, an alpha and beta agonist, causes vasoconstriction that can lead to
rebound hypotension after the effect wears off; monitoring is essential. Option A is incorrect as
semi-Fowler's is preferred to prevent aspiration. Option C would counteract benefits. Option D is
inappropriate during acute phase.
Question 6:
A nurse is teaching a client about pilocarpine eye drops for glaucoma. Which of the following
statements by the client indicates understanding of potential side effects?
,A) "I may experience blurred vision temporarily."
B) "I should expect dry mouth as a common effect."
C) "My heart rate will increase with use."
D) "I can drive immediately after instillation."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Pilocarpine, a cholinergic agonist, causes miosis and ciliary spasm leading to
temporary blurred vision. Option B is an anticholinergic effect. Option C is adrenergic. Option D
is unsafe due to vision impairment.
Question 7:
A nurse is preparing to administer bethanechol to a client with postoperative urinary retention.
Which of the following client assessments should the nurse perform prior to administration?
A) Blood pressure
B) Respiratory rate
C) Urine specific gravity
D) Bowel sounds
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Bethanechol, a cholinergic agonist, stimulates GI motility and can cause cramps or
diarrhea; assessing bowel sounds identifies risks. Option A is for antihypertensives. Option B is
unrelated. Option C assesses concentration, not primary.
Question 8:
A nurse is caring for a client receiving ipratropium bromide inhaler for COPD. Which of the
following instructions should the nurse provide to prevent adverse effects?
A) "Rinse your mouth after each use."
B) "Take with food to reduce nausea."
C) "Monitor for urinary hesitancy."
D) "Avoid alcohol consumption."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Ipratropium, an anticholinergic, can cause urinary retention, especially in males with
prostate enlargement; monitoring is key. Option A is for corticosteroids. Option B is for oral
meds. Option D is for CNS depressants.
Question 9:
A nurse is administering atropine IV to a client with symptomatic bradycardia. Which of the
following findings indicates a therapeutic response?
A) Heart rate increase to 72 bpm
, B) Blood pressure decrease
C) Dry mucous membranes
D) Pupil dilation
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Atropine, an anticholinergic, blocks vagal effects to increase heart rate in
bradycardia. Option B indicates hypotension needing intervention. Options C and D are side
effects, not therapeutic.
Question 10:
A nurse is teaching a client who has a new prescription for midodrine for orthostatic
hypotension. Which of the following adverse effects should the client report immediately?
A) Supine hypertension
B) Weight gain
C) Dry mouth
D) Insomnia
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Midodrine, an alpha-1 agonist, causes vasoconstriction that can lead to severe
supine hypertension; immediate reporting prevents stroke risk. Options B-D are minor or
unrelated.
Question 11:
A nurse is preparing to administer lisinopril to a client with heart failure. Which of the following
laboratory values should the nurse check prior to administration?
A) Serum creatinine
B) Blood glucose
C) Hemoglobin
D) Platelet count
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause acute kidney injury; baseline creatinine
assesses renal function. Option B is for antidiabetics. Options C and D are unrelated.
Question 12:
A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which of the following foods should the
client limit to maintain therapeutic INR?
A) Leafy green vegetables
B) Citrus fruits
C) Whole grains
