QME EXAM NEWEST 2025 | COMPLETE 350 QUESTIONS
WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS & DETAILED RATIONALES |
ALREADY GRADED A+
Q1. Which vitamin deficiency is most associated with neural tube defects?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Folic Acid
D. Vitamin D
Answer: C. Folic Acid
Rationale: Folic acid deficiency in early pregnancy impairs neural tube closure, leading
to spina bifida or anencephaly.
Q2. What is the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors?
A. Block angiotensin II receptor
B. Inhibit renin secretion
C. Inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme
D. Increase aldosterone secretion
Answer: C. Inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent conversion of angiotensin I to II, lowering blood
pressure and reducing afterload.
Q3. A patient with COPD presents with clubbing of fingers. What does this most likely
indicate?
A. Chronic bronchitis
B. Pulmonary hypertension
C. Cor pulmonale
D. Lung cancer
Answer: D. Lung cancer
,Rationale: Clubbing is rarely caused by COPD itself but strongly suggests lung cancer
or chronic hypoxemia.
Q4. Which ECG change is most specific for hyperkalemia?
A. ST depression
B. Peaked T waves
C. U waves
D. Widened QRS
Answer: B. Peaked T waves
Rationale: Early hyperkalemia produces tall, peaked T waves; later, QRS widening
occurs.
Q5. Which microorganism is the leading cause of peptic ulcer disease?
A. E. coli
B. H. pylori
C. C. difficile
D. Salmonella
Answer: B. H. pylori
Rationale: H. pylori infection disrupts mucosal protection, increasing gastric acid
damage and ulcer risk.
Q6. The antidote for benzodiazepine overdose is:
A. Naloxone
B. Atropine
C. Flumazenil
D. Protamine sulfate
Answer: C. Flumazenil
Rationale: Flumazenil competitively inhibits benzodiazepine binding at GABA receptors.
,Q7. Which lab marker best reflects long-term glycemic control in diabetes?
A. Random glucose
B. HbA1c
C. Fasting glucose
D. OGTT
Answer: B. HbA1c
Rationale: HbA1c reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months.
Q8. Which cranial nerve controls lateral eye movement?
A. CN III
B. CN IV
C. CN V
D. CN VI
Answer: D. CN VI
Rationale: The abducens nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle.
Q9. What is the gold standard test for pulmonary embolism?
A. V/Q scan
B. CT pulmonary angiography
C. D-dimer
D. Echocardiography
Answer: B. CT pulmonary angiography
Rationale: CTA provides direct visualization of emboli in pulmonary arteries.
Q10. A positive Babinski reflex in an adult indicates:
A. Lower motor neuron lesion
, B. Normal finding
C. Upper motor neuron lesion
D. Spinal cord compression
Answer: C. Upper motor neuron lesion
Rationale: Extension of big toe in adults is abnormal and signals corticospinal tract
damage.
Q11. Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teeth discoloration?
A. Penicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Azithromycin
D. Cephalosporin
Answer: B. Tetracycline
Rationale: Tetracyclines chelate calcium, impair bone growth, and discolor teeth.
Q12. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen with loop diuretics?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase K+ excretion in the nephron.
Q13. The antidote for organophosphate poisoning is:
A. Naloxone
B. Atropine + pralidoxime
C. Flumazenil
WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS & DETAILED RATIONALES |
ALREADY GRADED A+
Q1. Which vitamin deficiency is most associated with neural tube defects?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B12
C. Folic Acid
D. Vitamin D
Answer: C. Folic Acid
Rationale: Folic acid deficiency in early pregnancy impairs neural tube closure, leading
to spina bifida or anencephaly.
Q2. What is the mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors?
A. Block angiotensin II receptor
B. Inhibit renin secretion
C. Inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme
D. Increase aldosterone secretion
Answer: C. Inhibit angiotensin-converting enzyme
Rationale: ACE inhibitors prevent conversion of angiotensin I to II, lowering blood
pressure and reducing afterload.
Q3. A patient with COPD presents with clubbing of fingers. What does this most likely
indicate?
A. Chronic bronchitis
B. Pulmonary hypertension
C. Cor pulmonale
D. Lung cancer
Answer: D. Lung cancer
,Rationale: Clubbing is rarely caused by COPD itself but strongly suggests lung cancer
or chronic hypoxemia.
Q4. Which ECG change is most specific for hyperkalemia?
A. ST depression
B. Peaked T waves
C. U waves
D. Widened QRS
Answer: B. Peaked T waves
Rationale: Early hyperkalemia produces tall, peaked T waves; later, QRS widening
occurs.
Q5. Which microorganism is the leading cause of peptic ulcer disease?
A. E. coli
B. H. pylori
C. C. difficile
D. Salmonella
Answer: B. H. pylori
Rationale: H. pylori infection disrupts mucosal protection, increasing gastric acid
damage and ulcer risk.
Q6. The antidote for benzodiazepine overdose is:
A. Naloxone
B. Atropine
C. Flumazenil
D. Protamine sulfate
Answer: C. Flumazenil
Rationale: Flumazenil competitively inhibits benzodiazepine binding at GABA receptors.
,Q7. Which lab marker best reflects long-term glycemic control in diabetes?
A. Random glucose
B. HbA1c
C. Fasting glucose
D. OGTT
Answer: B. HbA1c
Rationale: HbA1c reflects average blood glucose over 2–3 months.
Q8. Which cranial nerve controls lateral eye movement?
A. CN III
B. CN IV
C. CN V
D. CN VI
Answer: D. CN VI
Rationale: The abducens nerve innervates the lateral rectus muscle.
Q9. What is the gold standard test for pulmonary embolism?
A. V/Q scan
B. CT pulmonary angiography
C. D-dimer
D. Echocardiography
Answer: B. CT pulmonary angiography
Rationale: CTA provides direct visualization of emboli in pulmonary arteries.
Q10. A positive Babinski reflex in an adult indicates:
A. Lower motor neuron lesion
, B. Normal finding
C. Upper motor neuron lesion
D. Spinal cord compression
Answer: C. Upper motor neuron lesion
Rationale: Extension of big toe in adults is abnormal and signals corticospinal tract
damage.
Q11. Which antibiotic is contraindicated in pregnancy due to teeth discoloration?
A. Penicillin
B. Tetracycline
C. Azithromycin
D. Cephalosporin
Answer: B. Tetracycline
Rationale: Tetracyclines chelate calcium, impair bone growth, and discolor teeth.
Q12. Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen with loop diuretics?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
Answer: B. Hypokalemia
Rationale: Loop diuretics increase K+ excretion in the nephron.
Q13. The antidote for organophosphate poisoning is:
A. Naloxone
B. Atropine + pralidoxime
C. Flumazenil
