Nursing A Case-Based Approach 1st Edition
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, Maternity Newborn and Women’s Health Nursing A Case-Based Approach 1st Edition O’Meara
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Chapter 1 Immediate Postpartum Hemorrhage
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. A perinatal nurse is giving discharge instructions to a woman, status postsuction, and curettage
secondary to a hydatidiform mole. The woman asks why she must take oral contraceptives for
the next 12 months. What is the bestresponse by the nurse?
If you get pregnant within 1 year, the chance of a successful pregnancy is very small. Therefore, if you desire a future
a. pregnancy, it would be better for you to use the most reliable method of contraception available.
The major risk to you after a molar pregnancy is a type of cancer that can be diagnosed only by measuring the same
hormone that your body produces during pregnancy. If you were to get pregnant, then it would make the diagnosis of b. this cancer
more difficult.
If you can avoid a pregnancy for the next year, the chance of developing a second molar pregnancy is rare. Therefore, to
c. improve your chance of a successful pregnancy, not getting pregnant at this time is best.
d. Oral contraceptives are the only form of birth control that will prevent a recurrence of a molar pregnancy.
ANS: B
Betahuman chorionic gonadotropin (beta-hCG) hormone levels are drawn for 1 year to ensure
that the mole is completely gone. The chance of developing choriocarcinoma after the
development of a hydatidiform mole is increased. Therefore, the goal is to achieve a zero human
chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) level. If the woman were to become pregnant, then it may
obscure the presence of the potentially carcinogenic cells. Women should be instructed to use
birth control for 1 year after treatment for a hydatidiform mole. The rationale for avoiding
pregnancy for 1 year is to ensure that carcinogenic cells are not present. Any contraceptive
method except an intrauterine device (IUD) is acceptable. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply REF:
dm. 679
TOP: Nursing Process: Planning | Nursing Process: Implementation
MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
2. The nurse is preparing to administer methotrexate to the client. This hazardous drugis
most often used for which obstetric complication?
ANS: C
Methotrexate is an effective nonsurgical treatment option for a hemodynamically stable woman
whose ectopic pregnancy is unruptured and measures less than 4 cm in diameter. Methotrexate is
not indicated or recommended as a treatment option for a complete hydatidiform mole, for a
missed abortion, or for abruptio placentae.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply REF: dm. 677 TOP: Nursing Process: Planning
MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
,3. A 26-year-old pregnant woman, gravida 2, para 1-0-0-1, is 28 weeks pregnant when
sheexperiences bright red, painless vaginal bleeding. On her arrival at the hospital, which
diagnostic procedure will the client most likely have performed?
a. Complete hydatidiform mole
b. Missed abortion
c. Unruptured ectopic pregnancy
d. Abruptio placentae
ANS: B
The presence of painless bleeding should always alert the health care team to the possibility of
placenta previa, which can be confirmed through ultrasonography. Amniocentesis is not
performed on a woman who is experiencing bleeding. In the event of an imminent delivery, the
fetus is presumed to have immature lungs at this gestational age, and the mother is given
corticosteroids to aid in fetal lung maturity. A CST is not performed at a preterm gestational age.
Furthermore, bleeding is a contraindication to a CST. Internal fetal monitoring is also
contraindicated in the presence of bleeding. DIF: Cognitive Level: Apply REF: dm. 680
TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Health Promotion and Maintenance
a. Amniocentesis for fetal lung maturity
b. Transvaginal ultrasound for placental location
c. Contraction stress test (CST)
d. Internal fetal monitoring
5. A laboring woman with no known risk factors suddenly experiences spontaneous ROM. The
fluid consists of bright red blood. Her contractions are consistent with her current stage of
labor. No change in uterine resting tone has occurred. The fetal heart rate (FHR) begins to
decline rapidly after the ROM. The nurse should suspect the possibility of what condition?
a. Placenta previa
Severe abruptio placentae
b. Vasa previa
c.
, d. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
ANS: B
Vasa previa is the result of a velamentous insertion of the umbilical cord. The umbilical vessels
are not surrounded by Wharton jelly and have no supportive tissue. The umbilical blood vessels
thus are at risk for laceration at any time, but laceration occurs most frequently during ROM.
The sudden appearance of bright red blood at the time of ROM and a sudden change in the FHR
without other known risk factors should immediately alert the nurse to the possibility of vasa
previa. The presence of placenta previa most likely would be ascertained before labor and is
considered a risk factor for this pregnancy. In addition, if the woman had a placenta previa, it is
unlikely that she would be allowed to pursue labor and a vaginal birth. With the presence of
severe abruptio placentae, the uterine tonicity typically is tetanus (i.e., a boardlike uterus). DIC is
a pathologic form of diffuse clotting that consumes large amounts of clotting factors, causing
widespread external bleeding, internal bleeding, or both. DIC is always a secondary diagnosis,
often associated with obstetric risk factors such as the hemolysis, elevated liver enzyme levels,
and low platelet levels (HELLP) syndrome. This woman did not have any prior risk factors.
DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze REF: dm. 684 TOP: Nursing Process: Diagnosis
MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
6. A woman arrives for evaluation of signs and symptoms that include a missed period,
adnexalfullness, tenderness, and dark red vaginal bleeding. On examination, the nurse notices an
ecchymotic blueness around the womans umbilicus. What does this finding indicate?
a. Normal integumentary changes associated with pregnancy
b. Turner sign associated with appendicitis
c. Cullen sign associated with a ruptured ectopic pregnancy
d. Chadwick sign associated with early pregnancy
ANS: C
Cullen sign, the blue ecchymosis observed in the umbilical area, indicates hematoperitoneum
associated with an undiagnosed ruptured intraabdominal ectopic pregnancy. Linea nigra on the
abdomen is the normal integumentary change associated with pregnancy and exhibits a brown
pigmented, vertical line on the lower abdomen. Turner sign is ecchymosis in the flank area, often
associated with pancreatitis. A Chadwick sign is a blue-purple cervix that may be seen during or
around the eighth week of pregnancy. DIF: Cognitive Level: Analyze REF: dm. 676
TOP: Nursing Process: Assessment MSC: Client Needs: Physiologic Integrity
7. The nurse who elects to practice in the area of womens health must have a
thoroughunderstanding of miscarriage. Which statement regarding this condition is most
accurate?
a. A miscarriage is a natural pregnancy loss before labor begins.
b. It occurs in fewer than 5% of all clinically recognized pregnancies.
c. Careless maternal behavior, such as poor nutrition or excessive exercise, can be a factor in causing a
miscarriage.
If a miscarriage occurs before the 12th week of pregnancy, then it may be observed only as moderate discomfort and
d. blood loss.