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Maryville NR 620 Primary Care I Final Exam With Actual 120 Questions & Verified Answers,Plus Rationales/Expert Verified For Guaranteed Pass Graded A+/ 2025/2026 /Latest Update/Instant Download Pdf

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Maryville NR 620 Primary Care I Final Exam With Actual 120 Questions & Verified Answers,Plus Rationales/Expert Verified For Guaranteed Pass Graded A+/ 2025/2026 /Latest Update/Instant Download Pdf

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Maryville NR 620 Primary Care I Final
Exam With Actual 120 Questions &
Verified Answers,Plus
Rationales/Expert Verified For
Guaranteed Pass Graded A+/
2025/2026 /Latest Update/Instant
Download Pdf

Maryville NR 620 Primary Care I – Final Exam Practice Questions

1. A 45-year-old patient presents with elevated blood pressure readings of 148/92
mmHg on two separate visits. According to JNC 8 guidelines, what is the best initial
management?
a. Start antihypertensive medication immediately
b. Lifestyle modifications including diet and exercise
c. Initiate two-drug therapy
d. Refer to a cardiologist
b. Lifestyle modifications including diet and exercise
Lifestyle changes such as DASH diet, weight loss, exercise, and limiting alcohol are
first-line for Stage 1 hypertension without compelling indications.

2. Which of the following is considered the first-line pharmacologic treatment for type 2
diabetes mellitus?
a. Sulfonylurea
b. Metformin
c. DPP-4 inhibitor
d. Insulin
b. Metformin
Metformin is the ADA-recommended first-line drug unless contraindicated due to
renal impairment or intolerance.

,3. A 62-year-old male presents with unilateral temporal headache, jaw claudication,
and vision changes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
a. Migraine
b. Tension headache
c. Temporal arteritis
d. Trigeminal neuralgia
c. Temporal arteritis
Giant cell arteritis presents with headache, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication, and
risk of vision loss. ESR and CRP are elevated.

4. A 25-year-old woman presents with dysuria, frequency, and urgency. UA shows
positive nitrites and leukocyte esterase. What is the first-line treatment?
a. Ciprofloxacin 500 mg for 7 days
b. Nitrofurantoin 100 mg BID for 5 days
c. Amoxicillin for 10 days
d. TMP-SMX for 14 days
b. Nitrofurantoin 100 mg BID for 5 days
Nitrofurantoin is a first-line option for uncomplicated UTI in young women per IDSA
guidelines.

5. Which of the following immunizations is recommended for adults aged 65 and older?
a. Varicella
b. Pneumococcal vaccine
c. HPV vaccine
d. MMR booster
b. Pneumococcal vaccine
Adults 65 and older should receive the pneumococcal conjugate and polysaccharide
vaccines to reduce pneumonia risk.

6. Which of the following lab findings is most consistent with iron deficiency anemia?
a. Low MCV, high ferritin
b. Low MCV, low ferritin
c. High MCV, low folate
d. High MCV, high B12
b. Low MCV, low ferritin
Iron deficiency anemia is microcytic and hypochromic, with decreased ferritin
(reflecting low iron stores).

7. The most appropriate screening test for colorectal cancer in a healthy 52-year-old
patient is:
a. Colonoscopy every 10 years
b. FOBT annually only
c. Sigmoidoscopy every 20 years

, d. CT scan of abdomen every 5 years
a. Colonoscopy every 10 years
Colonoscopy is the gold standard for colorectal cancer screening starting at age 45–
50 in average-risk individuals.

8. A patient with COPD presents with increased sputum, worsening dyspnea, and
cough. What is the most appropriate management?
a. Oral corticosteroids and antibiotics
b. Long-term oxygen therapy immediately
c. Switch to inhaled corticosteroids alone
d. Hospital admission without treatment
a. Oral corticosteroids and antibiotics
An acute COPD exacerbation is managed with steroids plus antibiotics if sputum
purulence is present.

9. The best diagnostic test to confirm suspected hypothyroidism is:
a. Free T4
b. TSH
c. T3 uptake
d. Thyroid ultrasound
b. TSH
TSH is the most sensitive test for diagnosing primary hypothyroidism.

10. Which of the following is the most common cause of community-acquired
pneumonia in adults?
a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
c. Haemophilus influenzae
d. Chlamydophila pneumoniae
b. Streptococcus pneumoniae
Strep pneumoniae remains the leading cause of community-acquired pneumonia in
adults.

11. A 35-year-old patient presents with persistent heartburn occurring more than twice a
week. First-line management includes:
a. Immediate surgical referral
b. Lifestyle modification and PPI therapy
c. Antacids PRN only
d. H2 blocker for 1 day
b. Lifestyle modification and PPI therapy
Lifestyle changes (diet, avoiding triggers, weight loss) plus a proton pump inhibitor
for 4–8 weeks is first-line for GERD.

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