NUR 2502 Multidimensional Care III
Exam 1 | Complete Exam Material
Instructions: This exam contains 18 multiple-choice questions covering complex nursing care,
oncology, surgical patients, and chronic disease management for Multidimensional Care III.
Select the best answer (A–D) for each question. Each question is worth approximately 5.56
points (total 100 points). Use this for study and review. Good luck!
Question 1
A 55-year-old patient with stage III colorectal cancer is receiving chemotherapy. What is a priority
nursing intervention to manage neutropenia?
A. Monitor absolute neutrophil count (ANC) and teach infection prevention
B. Administer high-dose steroids daily
C. Encourage high-protein diet only
D. Restrict all visitors
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Neutropenia increases infection risk; monitoring ANC and teaching hand hygiene,
avoiding crowds, and reporting fever are critical. Why correct: Prevents life-threatening
infections per oncology standards. Why others are incorrect: Steroids (B) are not routine for
neutropenia; diet (C) is supportive but not primary; visitor restriction (D) is excessive without
infection signs.
Question 2
A 60-year-old post-op patient after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) reports chest pain. What
is the nurse’s first action?
A. Assess pain characteristics and vital signs
B. Administer morphine immediately
C. Notify the surgeon
D. Increase oxygen flow rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Assessing pain and vitals distinguishes cardiac ischemia from incisional pain,
, guiding intervention per AHA guidelines. Why correct: Assessment drives decision-making. Why
others are incorrect: Morphine (B) requires assessment; notifying (C) is premature; oxygen
(D) is secondary without hypoxia.
Question 3
A 45-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation is prescribed
prednisone. What is a key teaching point?
A. Monitor for hyperglycemia
B. Take on an empty stomach
C. Expect immediate symptom relief
D. Stop abruptly if side effects occur
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can cause hyperglycemia, requiring blood glucose
monitoring in COPD patients. Why correct: Prevents complications per GOLD guidelines. Why
others are incorrect: Food (B) reduces GI upset; relief (C) is delayed; abrupt stop (D) risks
adrenal crisis.
Question 4
A patient with breast cancer is receiving doxorubicin. What is a key monitoring parameter for
cardiotoxicity?
A. Echocardiogram for ejection fraction
B. Daily ECG for QT prolongation
C. Serum potassium levels
D. Liver function tests
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Doxorubicin risks cardiomyopathy; echocardiograms monitor ejection fraction per
NCCN guidelines. Why correct: Detects heart dysfunction early. Why others are incorrect:
ECG (B) is not primary; potassium (C) is unrelated; liver (D) is for other drugs.
Question 5
A 50-year-old with type 2 diabetes and heart failure is admitted with fluid overload. Which
medication should the nurse question?
A. Pioglitazone
B. Metformin
Exam 1 | Complete Exam Material
Instructions: This exam contains 18 multiple-choice questions covering complex nursing care,
oncology, surgical patients, and chronic disease management for Multidimensional Care III.
Select the best answer (A–D) for each question. Each question is worth approximately 5.56
points (total 100 points). Use this for study and review. Good luck!
Question 1
A 55-year-old patient with stage III colorectal cancer is receiving chemotherapy. What is a priority
nursing intervention to manage neutropenia?
A. Monitor absolute neutrophil count (ANC) and teach infection prevention
B. Administer high-dose steroids daily
C. Encourage high-protein diet only
D. Restrict all visitors
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Neutropenia increases infection risk; monitoring ANC and teaching hand hygiene,
avoiding crowds, and reporting fever are critical. Why correct: Prevents life-threatening
infections per oncology standards. Why others are incorrect: Steroids (B) are not routine for
neutropenia; diet (C) is supportive but not primary; visitor restriction (D) is excessive without
infection signs.
Question 2
A 60-year-old post-op patient after coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) reports chest pain. What
is the nurse’s first action?
A. Assess pain characteristics and vital signs
B. Administer morphine immediately
C. Notify the surgeon
D. Increase oxygen flow rate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Assessing pain and vitals distinguishes cardiac ischemia from incisional pain,
, guiding intervention per AHA guidelines. Why correct: Assessment drives decision-making. Why
others are incorrect: Morphine (B) requires assessment; notifying (C) is premature; oxygen
(D) is secondary without hypoxia.
Question 3
A 45-year-old with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) exacerbation is prescribed
prednisone. What is a key teaching point?
A. Monitor for hyperglycemia
B. Take on an empty stomach
C. Expect immediate symptom relief
D. Stop abruptly if side effects occur
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Prednisone, a corticosteroid, can cause hyperglycemia, requiring blood glucose
monitoring in COPD patients. Why correct: Prevents complications per GOLD guidelines. Why
others are incorrect: Food (B) reduces GI upset; relief (C) is delayed; abrupt stop (D) risks
adrenal crisis.
Question 4
A patient with breast cancer is receiving doxorubicin. What is a key monitoring parameter for
cardiotoxicity?
A. Echocardiogram for ejection fraction
B. Daily ECG for QT prolongation
C. Serum potassium levels
D. Liver function tests
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Doxorubicin risks cardiomyopathy; echocardiograms monitor ejection fraction per
NCCN guidelines. Why correct: Detects heart dysfunction early. Why others are incorrect:
ECG (B) is not primary; potassium (C) is unrelated; liver (D) is for other drugs.
Question 5
A 50-year-old with type 2 diabetes and heart failure is admitted with fluid overload. Which
medication should the nurse question?
A. Pioglitazone
B. Metformin
