NRNP 6635 Psychopathology
and Diagnostic Reasoning –
Midterm Exam – Walden
University (2025/2026)
complete exam material
Instructions
1. This midterm exam assesses your knowledge of psychopathology and
diagnostic reasoning for psychiatric-mental health practice.
2. Read each question carefully and select the most accurate answer from
the four options provided.
3. The correct answer is highlighted in blue for study purposes.
4. Review the expert rationales to understand the reasoning behind each
Secti
answer and enhance your clinical decision-making skills.
5. Topics include anxiety disorders, OCD, mood disorders, psychotic
disorders, and treatment strategies per DSM-5-TR and evidence-based
guidelines.
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Question 1
A 32-year-old female presents with excessive worry about multiple life
domains for 8 months, accompanied by fatigue, irritability, and sleep
disturbance. Which DSM-5-TR diagnosis is most likely?
A. Panic Disorder
B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
C. Social Anxiety Disorder
D. Adjustment Disorder with Anxiety
B. Generalized Anxiety Disorder
Rationale: Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD) is characterized by
excessive, uncontrollable worry about multiple areas for at least 6
months, with symptoms like fatigue, irritability, and sleep issues. Panic
Disorder involves recurrent panic attacks, Social Anxiety Disorder
focuses on social situations, and Adjustment Disorder requires a specific
stressor with symptoms not meeting GAD criteria.
Question 2
What is the hallmark feature of Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
per DSM-5-TR?
A. Panic attacks triggered by specific stimuli
B. Intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors
C. Fear of social scrutiny
D. Excessive worry about everyday events
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B. Intrusive thoughts and repetitive behaviors
Rationale: OCD is defined by obsessions (intrusive, unwanted thoughts
causing distress) and compulsions (repetitive behaviors or mental acts to
reduce anxiety). Panic attacks are central to Panic Disorder, social
scrutiny to Social Anxiety Disorder, and excessive worry to GAD.
Question 3
A 45-year-old male reports a 2-week history of low mood, anhedonia,
and suicidal ideation. He denies substance use. What is the first step in
diagnostic reasoning?
A. Order a brain MRI
B. Administer the PHQ-9
C. Prescribe an SSRI
D. Refer to a neurologist
B. Administer the PHQ-9
Rationale: The PHQ-9 is a validated screening tool for depression
severity, guiding diagnosis and management. MRI or neurology referral
is premature without ruling out psychiatric causes. Prescribing
medication before assessment risks inappropriate treatment.
Question 4
Which neurotransmitter is most implicated in the pathophysiology of
anxiety disorders?