HESI RN Pharmacology Exit Exam
2025/2026 – Actual Exam 75 Multiple-
Choice Questions with Verified
Correct Answers
Question 1
A nurse is administering morphine sulfate 2 mg IV push to a client
experiencing acute pain. What action should the nurse take to prevent
respiratory depression? A. Administer the dose slowly over 4-5 minutes.
B. Monitor vital signs every 4 hours. C. Give the dose with an
antiemetic. D. Place the client in a supine position.
Correct Answer: A. Administer the dose slowly over 4-5 minutes.
Rationale: Slow IV administration of opioids like morphine reduces the
risk of respiratory depression by allowing gradual onset and
monitoring for adverse effects. Rapid administration can lead to
sudden high plasma levels.
Question 2
A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril 10 mg daily. The nurse
should teach the client to report which symptom immediately? A. Dry
cough. B. Swelling of the face and lips. C. Dizziness upon standing. D.
Fatigue.
,Correct Answer: B. Swelling of the face and lips. Rationale:
Angioedema is a rare but life-threatening allergic reaction to ACE
inhibitors like lisinopril, requiring immediate discontinuation and
emergency care. Other symptoms like cough or dizziness are common
but less urgent.
Question 3
Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely in a client
receiving warfarin therapy? A. Platelet count. B. International
Normalized Ratio (INR). C. White blood cell count. D. Hemoglobin level.
Correct Answer: B. International Normalized Ratio (INR). Rationale:
Warfarin is an anticoagulant monitored via INR to ensure therapeutic
anticoagulation (typically 2-3) and prevent bleeding or clotting risks.
Other values are less directly affected.
Question 4
A client with type 2 diabetes is starting metformin 500 mg twice daily.
What instruction should the nurse provide regarding alcohol
consumption? A. Avoid alcohol completely. B. Limit to one drink per
day. C. Drink only beer. D. Take with meals only.
Correct Answer: A. Avoid alcohol completely. Rationale: Alcohol can
increase the risk of lactic acidosis with metformin, a serious
complication. Complete avoidance is recommended during therapy.
Question 5
, The nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client with a
MRSA infection. What is the most important action before infusion? A.
Obtain a serum creatinine level. B. Administer a test dose. C. Flush the
line with saline. D. Check blood glucose.
Correct Answer: A. Obtain a serum creatinine level. Rationale:
Vancomycin is nephrotoxic, so renal function (creatinine) must be
assessed to adjust dosing and prevent acute kidney injury.
Question 6
A client receiving chemotherapy is prescribed ondansetron for nausea.
What is the primary mechanism of action of this medication? A.
Dopamine antagonist. B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist. C.
Antihistamine. D. Corticosteroid.
Correct Answer: B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist. Rationale:
Ondansetron blocks serotonin receptors in the gut and CNS,
effectively preventing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
Question 7
Which antidote should the nurse administer for a client with
acetaminophen overdose? A. Flumazenil. B. N-acetylcysteine. C.
Naloxone. D. Atropine.
Correct Answer: B. N-acetylcysteine. Rationale: N-acetylcysteine
replenishes glutathione stores in the liver, detoxifying the toxic
metabolite NAPQI formed in acetaminophen overdose.
2025/2026 – Actual Exam 75 Multiple-
Choice Questions with Verified
Correct Answers
Question 1
A nurse is administering morphine sulfate 2 mg IV push to a client
experiencing acute pain. What action should the nurse take to prevent
respiratory depression? A. Administer the dose slowly over 4-5 minutes.
B. Monitor vital signs every 4 hours. C. Give the dose with an
antiemetic. D. Place the client in a supine position.
Correct Answer: A. Administer the dose slowly over 4-5 minutes.
Rationale: Slow IV administration of opioids like morphine reduces the
risk of respiratory depression by allowing gradual onset and
monitoring for adverse effects. Rapid administration can lead to
sudden high plasma levels.
Question 2
A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril 10 mg daily. The nurse
should teach the client to report which symptom immediately? A. Dry
cough. B. Swelling of the face and lips. C. Dizziness upon standing. D.
Fatigue.
,Correct Answer: B. Swelling of the face and lips. Rationale:
Angioedema is a rare but life-threatening allergic reaction to ACE
inhibitors like lisinopril, requiring immediate discontinuation and
emergency care. Other symptoms like cough or dizziness are common
but less urgent.
Question 3
Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely in a client
receiving warfarin therapy? A. Platelet count. B. International
Normalized Ratio (INR). C. White blood cell count. D. Hemoglobin level.
Correct Answer: B. International Normalized Ratio (INR). Rationale:
Warfarin is an anticoagulant monitored via INR to ensure therapeutic
anticoagulation (typically 2-3) and prevent bleeding or clotting risks.
Other values are less directly affected.
Question 4
A client with type 2 diabetes is starting metformin 500 mg twice daily.
What instruction should the nurse provide regarding alcohol
consumption? A. Avoid alcohol completely. B. Limit to one drink per
day. C. Drink only beer. D. Take with meals only.
Correct Answer: A. Avoid alcohol completely. Rationale: Alcohol can
increase the risk of lactic acidosis with metformin, a serious
complication. Complete avoidance is recommended during therapy.
Question 5
, The nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin IV to a client with a
MRSA infection. What is the most important action before infusion? A.
Obtain a serum creatinine level. B. Administer a test dose. C. Flush the
line with saline. D. Check blood glucose.
Correct Answer: A. Obtain a serum creatinine level. Rationale:
Vancomycin is nephrotoxic, so renal function (creatinine) must be
assessed to adjust dosing and prevent acute kidney injury.
Question 6
A client receiving chemotherapy is prescribed ondansetron for nausea.
What is the primary mechanism of action of this medication? A.
Dopamine antagonist. B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist. C.
Antihistamine. D. Corticosteroid.
Correct Answer: B. Serotonin 5-HT3 receptor antagonist. Rationale:
Ondansetron blocks serotonin receptors in the gut and CNS,
effectively preventing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting.
Question 7
Which antidote should the nurse administer for a client with
acetaminophen overdose? A. Flumazenil. B. N-acetylcysteine. C.
Naloxone. D. Atropine.
Correct Answer: B. N-acetylcysteine. Rationale: N-acetylcysteine
replenishes glutathione stores in the liver, detoxifying the toxic
metabolite NAPQI formed in acetaminophen overdose.
