RN VATI Comprehensive Assessment | 2025/2026
Latest Edition | Real Exam with 180 Questions and
100% Correct Answers | Graded A+
RN VATI Comprehensive Assessment | Updated 2025/2026 edition featuring the complete
set of 180 real exam-style questions with fully verified correct answers. Content covers core
nursing concepts including medical-surgical nursing, pharmacology, maternal-newborn,
pediatrics, psychiatric-mental health, leadership/management, evidence-based practice, and
patient safety.
Overview
This premium exam prep resource provides authentic RN VATI comprehensive assessment
questions with 100% accuracy. Designed to enhance clinical judgment, reinforce NCLEX-style
critical thinking, and prepare nursing students for safe, effective practice. Graded A+ for
accuracy, reliability, and exam readiness. The RN VATI Comprehensive Assessment includes
180 questions, aligned with the NCLEX-RN test plan and ATI standards.
Answer Format
Correct answers are highlighted in bold green. Each item is paired with a rationale explaining
priority nursing interventions, pharmacologic principles, or evidence-based practice guidelines
to ensure mastery of comprehensive nursing care.
Exam Questions
Medical-Surgical Nursing
1. A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What should the
nurse monitor?
A. Blood pressure
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood glucose
D. Respiratory rate
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause hypokalemia, requiring monitoring of
serum potassium levels.
,2. A patient with a new diagnosis of myocardial infarction reports chest pain.
What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer ibuprofen
B. Administer nitroglycerin as prescribed
C. Obtain a chest X-ray
D. Encourage deep breathing
Rationale: Nitroglycerin relieves angina by dilating coronary arteries, improving blood
flow.
3. A patient with COPD has an oxygen saturation of 88%. What is the priority
intervention?
A. Administer high-flow oxygen
B. Titrate oxygen to maintain SpO2 88–92%
C. Encourage coughing exercises
D. Administer albuterol nebulizer
Rationale: In COPD, low-flow oxygen is titrated to maintain SpO2 88–92% to avoid
suppressing the respiratory drive.
4. A patient with diabetes mellitus reports nausea and sweating. What is the
priority action?
A. Administer insulin
B. Check blood glucose level
C. Provide oral fluids
D. Monitor vital signs
Rationale: Nausea and sweating may indicate hypoglycemia; checking blood glucose is
the priority.
5. A patient with a new colostomy asks about diet. What should the nurse
recommend?
A. High-fiber foods
B. Low-residue diet initially
C. Spicy foods
D. Carbonated beverages
Rationale: A low-residue diet reduces stool bulk and irritation in the early
postoperative period.
6. A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.8°F. What is the priority
nursing action?
A. Administer antibiotics
B. Administer acetaminophen as prescribed
C. Apply a heating pad
D. Encourage fluid restriction
Rationale: Acetaminophen reduces fever, improving patient comfort; antibiotics
address the infection but not fever directly.
, 7. A patient with a fractured femur is in traction. What should the nurse
assess?
A. Bowel sounds
B. Neurovascular status
C. Respiratory rate
D. Blood glucose
Rationale: Traction can compromise circulation; neurovascular checks assess for
complications like compartment syndrome.
8. A patient with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. What should the
nurse teach?
A. Skip doses if asymptomatic
B. Maintain good oral hygiene
C. Avoid high-protein foods
D. Stop the medication if a rash appears
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia; good oral hygiene is essential.
9. A patient with chronic kidney disease is on hemodialysis. What should the
nurse monitor?
A. Blood glucose
B. Fluid and electrolyte balance
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Bowel movements
Rationale: Hemodialysis affects fluid and electrolyte levels, requiring close monitoring.
10.A patient with a pulmonary embolism is prescribed heparin. What lab value
should be monitored?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count
D. Creatinine
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) monitors heparin’s
anticoagulant effect.
Pharmacology
11.A patient is prescribed warfarin. What should the nurse teach about diet?
A. Increase vitamin K intake
B. Maintain consistent vitamin K intake
C. Avoid all vegetables
D. Eliminate carbohydrates
Rationale: Consistent vitamin K intake stabilizes warfarin’s anticoagulant effect.
, 12.What is the antidote for opioid overdose?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Acetylcysteine
D. Protamine
Rationale: Naloxone reverses respiratory depression in opioid overdose.
13.A patient is prescribed lisinopril. What is a common side effect?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Dry cough
C. Tachycardia
D. Hyperglycemia
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, causes bradykinin accumulation, leading to a
dry cough.
14.A patient is receiving IV vancomycin. What should the nurse monitor?
A. Blood glucose
B. Infusion rate for red man syndrome
C. Respiratory rate
D. Temperature
Rationale: Rapid vancomycin infusion can cause red man syndrome (flushing, rash).
15.What is the mechanism of action of metformin?
A. Stimulate insulin release
B. Decrease hepatic glucose production
C. Block glucose absorption
D. Increase glucagon levels
Rationale: Metformin reduces gluconeogenesis in the liver, improving glycemic control.
16.A patient is prescribed 500 mg of amoxicillin every 8 hours. How many
grams will the patient receive in 24 hours?
A. 1 g
B. 1.5 g
C. 2 g
D. 2.5 g
Rationale: 500 mg every 8 hours means 3 doses in 24 hours (24 ÷ 8 = 3). Total dose:
500 mg × 3 = 1500 mg = 1.5 g.
17.Which medication is used to treat acute bronchospasm?
A. Montelukast
B. Albuterol
C. Fluticasone
D. Theophylline
Rationale: Albuterol, a short-acting beta-2 agonist, rapidly relieves bronchospasm.
Latest Edition | Real Exam with 180 Questions and
100% Correct Answers | Graded A+
RN VATI Comprehensive Assessment | Updated 2025/2026 edition featuring the complete
set of 180 real exam-style questions with fully verified correct answers. Content covers core
nursing concepts including medical-surgical nursing, pharmacology, maternal-newborn,
pediatrics, psychiatric-mental health, leadership/management, evidence-based practice, and
patient safety.
Overview
This premium exam prep resource provides authentic RN VATI comprehensive assessment
questions with 100% accuracy. Designed to enhance clinical judgment, reinforce NCLEX-style
critical thinking, and prepare nursing students for safe, effective practice. Graded A+ for
accuracy, reliability, and exam readiness. The RN VATI Comprehensive Assessment includes
180 questions, aligned with the NCLEX-RN test plan and ATI standards.
Answer Format
Correct answers are highlighted in bold green. Each item is paired with a rationale explaining
priority nursing interventions, pharmacologic principles, or evidence-based practice guidelines
to ensure mastery of comprehensive nursing care.
Exam Questions
Medical-Surgical Nursing
1. A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. What should the
nurse monitor?
A. Blood pressure
B. Serum potassium
C. Blood glucose
D. Respiratory rate
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can cause hypokalemia, requiring monitoring of
serum potassium levels.
,2. A patient with a new diagnosis of myocardial infarction reports chest pain.
What is the priority nursing action?
A. Administer ibuprofen
B. Administer nitroglycerin as prescribed
C. Obtain a chest X-ray
D. Encourage deep breathing
Rationale: Nitroglycerin relieves angina by dilating coronary arteries, improving blood
flow.
3. A patient with COPD has an oxygen saturation of 88%. What is the priority
intervention?
A. Administer high-flow oxygen
B. Titrate oxygen to maintain SpO2 88–92%
C. Encourage coughing exercises
D. Administer albuterol nebulizer
Rationale: In COPD, low-flow oxygen is titrated to maintain SpO2 88–92% to avoid
suppressing the respiratory drive.
4. A patient with diabetes mellitus reports nausea and sweating. What is the
priority action?
A. Administer insulin
B. Check blood glucose level
C. Provide oral fluids
D. Monitor vital signs
Rationale: Nausea and sweating may indicate hypoglycemia; checking blood glucose is
the priority.
5. A patient with a new colostomy asks about diet. What should the nurse
recommend?
A. High-fiber foods
B. Low-residue diet initially
C. Spicy foods
D. Carbonated beverages
Rationale: A low-residue diet reduces stool bulk and irritation in the early
postoperative period.
6. A patient with pneumonia has a fever of 101.8°F. What is the priority
nursing action?
A. Administer antibiotics
B. Administer acetaminophen as prescribed
C. Apply a heating pad
D. Encourage fluid restriction
Rationale: Acetaminophen reduces fever, improving patient comfort; antibiotics
address the infection but not fever directly.
, 7. A patient with a fractured femur is in traction. What should the nurse
assess?
A. Bowel sounds
B. Neurovascular status
C. Respiratory rate
D. Blood glucose
Rationale: Traction can compromise circulation; neurovascular checks assess for
complications like compartment syndrome.
8. A patient with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin. What should the
nurse teach?
A. Skip doses if asymptomatic
B. Maintain good oral hygiene
C. Avoid high-protein foods
D. Stop the medication if a rash appears
Rationale: Phenytoin can cause gingival hyperplasia; good oral hygiene is essential.
9. A patient with chronic kidney disease is on hemodialysis. What should the
nurse monitor?
A. Blood glucose
B. Fluid and electrolyte balance
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Bowel movements
Rationale: Hemodialysis affects fluid and electrolyte levels, requiring close monitoring.
10.A patient with a pulmonary embolism is prescribed heparin. What lab value
should be monitored?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count
D. Creatinine
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) monitors heparin’s
anticoagulant effect.
Pharmacology
11.A patient is prescribed warfarin. What should the nurse teach about diet?
A. Increase vitamin K intake
B. Maintain consistent vitamin K intake
C. Avoid all vegetables
D. Eliminate carbohydrates
Rationale: Consistent vitamin K intake stabilizes warfarin’s anticoagulant effect.
, 12.What is the antidote for opioid overdose?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Acetylcysteine
D. Protamine
Rationale: Naloxone reverses respiratory depression in opioid overdose.
13.A patient is prescribed lisinopril. What is a common side effect?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Dry cough
C. Tachycardia
D. Hyperglycemia
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, causes bradykinin accumulation, leading to a
dry cough.
14.A patient is receiving IV vancomycin. What should the nurse monitor?
A. Blood glucose
B. Infusion rate for red man syndrome
C. Respiratory rate
D. Temperature
Rationale: Rapid vancomycin infusion can cause red man syndrome (flushing, rash).
15.What is the mechanism of action of metformin?
A. Stimulate insulin release
B. Decrease hepatic glucose production
C. Block glucose absorption
D. Increase glucagon levels
Rationale: Metformin reduces gluconeogenesis in the liver, improving glycemic control.
16.A patient is prescribed 500 mg of amoxicillin every 8 hours. How many
grams will the patient receive in 24 hours?
A. 1 g
B. 1.5 g
C. 2 g
D. 2.5 g
Rationale: 500 mg every 8 hours means 3 doses in 24 hours (24 ÷ 8 = 3). Total dose:
500 mg × 3 = 1500 mg = 1.5 g.
17.Which medication is used to treat acute bronchospasm?
A. Montelukast
B. Albuterol
C. Fluticasone
D. Theophylline
Rationale: Albuterol, a short-acting beta-2 agonist, rapidly relieves bronchospasm.
