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Exam (elaborations)

HESI RN Pharmacology Exit Exam 2025/2026 – 70 Actual Questions with Verified Correct Answers

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HESI RN Pharmacology Exit Exam 2025/2026 – 70 Actual Questions with Verified Correct Answers

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HESI RN Pharmacology Exit Exam
2025/2026 – 70 Actual Questions with
Verified Correct Answers

1. A client with hypertension is prescribed lisinopril. Which client statement indicates
understanding of the medication’s action?
A. “It blocks calcium channels to relax blood vessels.”
B. “It inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme to lower blood pressure.”
C. “It stimulates beta receptors to increase heart rate.”
D. “It promotes sodium retention to increase blood volume.”
Answer: B
Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits angiotensin-converting enzyme,
reducing angiotensin II formation, which causes vasodilation and lowers blood
pressure. Option A describes calcium channel blockers, C refers to beta agonists,
and D is the opposite effect.
2. A nurse is preparing to administer metoprolol to a client with angina. What is the primary
therapeutic effect?
A. Dilates coronary arteries
B. Reduces myocardial oxygen demand
C. Increases cardiac contractility
D. Prevents thrombus formation
Answer: B
Rationale: Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, reduces heart rate and contractility,
decreasing myocardial oxygen demand. Option A is incorrect as it does not directly
dilate arteries, C increases oxygen demand, and D is an antiplatelet effect.
3. A client receiving morphine sulfate reports nausea. What is the most appropriate nursing
intervention?
A. Administer ondansetron as prescribed
B. Encourage the client to lie flat
C. Increase the morphine dose
D. Offer a high-fat meal
Answer: A
Rationale: Ondansetron, an antiemetic, is used to manage nausea caused by
morphine. Lying flat may worsen nausea, increasing the dose exacerbates side
effects, and high-fat meals are not recommended.
4. A client with hyperparathyroidism has a serum calcium level of 13 mg/dL. Which
medication should the nurse prepare to administer?
A. Calcium chloride
B. Calcium gluconate
C. Calcitonin (Miacalcin)
D. Vitamin D

, Answer: C
Rationale: Calcitonin decreases serum calcium by inhibiting bone resorption in
hypercalcemia. Calcium chloride and gluconate treat hypocalcemia, and vitamin D
increases calcium levels, worsening the condition.
5. A client is prescribed warfarin. Which food should the nurse advise the client to limit?
A. Bananas
B. Apples
C. Leafy green vegetables
D. Rice
Answer: C
Rationale: Leafy green vegetables are high in vitamin K, which antagonizes
warfarin’s anticoagulant effect. Bananas, apples, and rice have minimal vitamin K
and do not affect warfarin significantly.
6. A nurse is administering enalapril. What should be assessed prior to administration?
A. Peripheral pulses
B. Blood pressure
C. Blood glucose
D. Respiratory rate
Answer: B
Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, can cause hypotension. Checking blood
pressure ensures safe administration. Pulses, glucose, and respiratory rate are not
directly related to enalapril’s effects.
7. A client with type 2 diabetes is prescribed metformin. Which instruction should the nurse
include?
A. Take with a high-fat meal
B. Report muscle pain or weakness
C. Expect weight gain
D. Take at bedtime only
Answer: B
Rationale: Muscle pain or weakness may indicate lactic acidosis, a rare but serious
side effect of metformin. It should be taken with meals to reduce GI upset, weight
loss is common, and timing is flexible.
8. A client is receiving heparin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
A. INR
B. aPTT
C. Platelet count
D. Serum potassium
Answer: B
Rationale: Heparin’s anticoagulant effect is monitored using activated partial
thromboplastin time (aPTT). INR is used for warfarin, platelets are monitored for
bleeding risk, and potassium is unrelated.
9. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine. Which statement is correct?
A. Shake the vial vigorously
B. Inject subcutaneously at a 90-degree angle
C. Mix with regular insulin
D. Administer intravenously

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