University of Texas, Arlington NURS 5334/NURS5334: Quiz 2 40 Questions and Answers (explained) | 100% correct 2025/26.

University of Texas, Arlington NURS 5334/NURS5334: Quiz 2 40 Questions and Answers (explained) | 100% correct 2025/26. QUIZ 2 40 multiple-choice questions divided as requested: 6˙ Antimicrobials (12 questions) 1. What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillin? A) Inhibits protein synthesis B) Inhibits cell wall synthesis C) Alters DNA replication D) Blocks folic acid synthesis 2. Which generation of cephalosporins is most effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa? A) First B) Second C) Third D) Fourth 3. Vancomycin is the drug of choice for: A) MRSA infections B) VRE infections C) UTI D) Syphilis 4. What is the peak concern with aminoglycosides? A) Stevens-Johnson syndrome B) Hepatotoxicity C) Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity D) Anemia 5. What mineral interactions reduce the absorption of tetracyclines? A) Sodium B) Potassium C) Calcium, iron, magnesium D) Phosphate 6. Macrolides can inhibit which hepatic enzyme system? A) CYP1A2 B) CYP2D6 C) CYP3A4 D) CYP2C19 7. Which antibiotic is associated with Clostridioides difficile colitis? A) Metronidazole B) Clindamycin C) Nitrofurantoin D) Ciprofloxacin 8. Linezolid requires weekly monitoring of which lab value? A) Liver enzymes B) Platelet count C) BUN D) Calcium 9. Sulfonamides inhibit: A) Bacterial DNA gyrase B) Folic acid synthesis C) Ribosomal activity D) Protein folding 10. Fluoroquinolones carry a black box warning for: A) Seizures B) Arrhythmias C) Tendon rupture D) Renal failure 11. What is the mechanism of daptomycin? A) DNA synthesis inhibition B) Membrane depolarization C) Folate synthesis inhibition D) Protein synthesis inhibition 12. Metronidazole should be avoided with: A) Dairy products B) Alcohol C) Antacids D) Grapefruit Pö•„¶ Gastrointestinal (8 questions) 13. What is the action of PPIs? A) Block histamine receptors B) Neutralize stomach acid C) Irreversibly inhibit H+/K+ ATPase D) Stimulate mucus secretion 14. Aluminum-containing antacids can cause: A) Diarrhea B) Constipation C) Flatulence D) Vomiting . 15. What is a unique caution for cimetidine? A) Sedation B) QT prolongation C) CYP450 inhibition D) Hepatitis 16. Sucralfate should be administered: A) After meals B) With food C) Before meals D) At bedtime only 17. Loperamide is contraindicated in: A) IBS B) Traveler's diarrhea C) Bloody diarrhea D) Stress-related diarrhea 18. Which laxative acts as a chloride channel activator? A) Lactulose B) Bisacodyl C) Lubiprostone D) Psyllium 19. Which is safest for treating nausea in pregnancy? A) Metoclopramide B) Ondansetron C) Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) D) Dronabinol 20. Which antiemetic works as a dopamine antagonist? A) Scopolamine B) Metoclopramide C) Dronabinol D) Ondansetron . Д Women’s Health (8 questions) 21. Estrogens increase the risk of: A) Osteoporosis B) Endometrial cancer C) UTIs D) Acne 22. Emergency contraception with ulipristal works by: A) Inducing uterine contractions B) Delaying ovulation C) Inhibiting implantation D) Altering cervical mucus 23. Which contraceptive is safest in smokers 35 years? A) Combined pill B) Progestin-only pill C) Vaginal ring D) Patch 24. A common side effect of Depo-Provera is: A) Hypertension B) Increased libido C) Bone loss D) Weight loss 25. Tamoxifen is primarily used for: A) Endometriosis B) Osteoporosis C) Breast cancer prevention D) Menstrual regulation 26. Which drug is used for genitourinary syndrome of menopause? A) Ospemifene B) Levonorgestrel C) Clomiphene D) Drospirenone 27. Metronidazole is first-line for: A) Candidiasis B) Trichomoniasis C) Herpes simplex D) Syphilis 28. Which has the lowest failure rate for contraception? A) Patch B) Pill C) IUD D) Condom c*▶• (M ¯ Skin (7 questions) 29. Which vehicle is best for dry, scaly skin? A) Lotion B) Gel C) Ointment D) Spray 30. First-line for mild comedonal acne is: A) Benzoyl peroxide B) Isotretinoin C) Oral antibiotics D) Dapsone 31. Which topical agent treats rosacea by reducing redness? A) Clindamycin B) Metronidazole C) Azelaic acid D) Mupirocin 32. Calcipotriene is used to treat: A) Acne B) Psoriasis C) Impetigo D) Eczema 33. Permethrin 5% is used for: A) Warts B) Scabies C) Psoriasis D) Alopecia 34. Which antifungal is used for onychomycosis? A) Clotrimazole B) Terbinafine C) Mupirocin D) Ketoconazole shampoo 35. Imiquimod is most appropriate for: A) Cellulitis B) Actinic keratosis C) Psoriasis D) Tinea corporis fi s Immunizations (5 questions) 36. Live vaccines are contraindicated in: A) Healthy children B) Elderly C) Pregnant women D) Asthma patients 37. Which vaccine should be avoided in severe egg allergy (traditional formulation)? A) MMR B) Influenza C) Tetanus D) Hepatitis B 38. Which vaccine is recommended for adults over 50 for shingles prevention? A) Varivax B) Zostavax C) Shingrix D) VZIG 39. The mechanism of mRNA vaccines involves: A) Inactivated virus B) Viral vector C) Direct antibody injection D) Host cell translation of viral proteins 40. What is the primary adverse reaction concern with the DTaP vaccine? A) Guillain-Barre B) Encephalopathy C) Rash D) Fever