Certified Ambulatory Surgery Nurse (CNAMB) Exam
Question 1. What is the primary purpose of preoperative patient assessment in the ambulatory
surgery setting?
A) To reduce staffing needs
B) To ensure suitability and safety for surgery
C) To schedule operating room times
D) To select anesthesia type only
Answer: B
Explanation: Preoperative assessment ensures the patient is medically and physically appropriate for
ambulatory surgery, reducing risks and planning individualized care.
Question 2. Which medication should be specifically reconciled due to increased bleeding risk prior
to surgery?
A) Vitamin C
B) Warfarin
C) Acetaminophen
D) Lisinopril
Answer: B
Explanation: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases bleeding risk and must be carefully
managed before surgery.
Question 3. A patient with ASA Physical Status Classification III is best described as:
A) A healthy patient
B) A patient with mild systemic disease
C) A patient with severe systemic disease
D) A patient with life-threatening disease
Answer: C
Explanation: ASA III denotes a patient with severe systemic disease, which impacts suitability for
ambulatory procedures.
Question 4. When assessing risk for postoperative nausea and vomiting, which factor is MOST
significant?
A) Patient age
B) Smoking status
C) History of motion sickness
D) Height
Answer: C
Explanation: A history of motion sickness or previous PONV increases the risk for postoperative
nausea and vomiting.
Question 5. What is an essential component of medication reconciliation in the preoperative phase?
A) Listing only prescription drugs
B) Omitting over-the-counter medications
C) Including all supplements and herbal products
D) Focusing on vitamins only
Answer: C
Explanation: All supplements and herbal products can affect surgical outcomes and must be included
in medication reconciliation.
Question 6. Which of the following is NOT appropriate when assessing a patient's airway prior to
ambulatory surgery?
, Certified Ambulatory Surgery Nurse (CNAMB) Exam
A) Evaluating mouth opening
B) Assessing neck mobility
C) Ignoring dental status
D) Checking for loose teeth
Answer: C
Explanation: Dental status is critical for airway assessment and must not be ignored.
Question 7. What is the primary reason for assessing BMI before ambulatory surgery?
A) Determining anesthesia cost
B) Assessing risk for complications and suitability for surgery
C) Assigning room numbers
D) Calculating medication doses for all drugs
Answer: B
Explanation: High BMI can increase anesthetic and surgical risk, influencing suitability for ambulatory
surgery.
Question 8. Which of the following is a NANDA-approved nursing diagnosis relevant for preoperative
patients?
A) Ineffective airway clearance
B) Hypertension
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Fractured femur
Answer: A
Explanation: Ineffective airway clearance is a NANDA-approved nursing diagnosis related to
perioperative care.
Question 9. What is the Universal Protocol designed to prevent?
A) Infection
B) Wrong-site, wrong-procedure, wrong-patient surgery
C) Medication errors
D) Staff injuries
Answer: B
Explanation: The Universal Protocol ensures surgical safety by preventing wrong-site, wrong-
procedure, and wrong-patient errors.
Question 10. Which action is a key step in obtaining informed consent?
A) The nurse signs the form for the patient
B) The surgeon explains the procedure, risks, and alternatives
C) Only the anesthesiologist speaks with the patient
D) The patient is not allowed to ask questions
Answer: B
Explanation: The surgeon must explain the procedure, associated risks, and alternatives for informed
consent.
Question 11. When planning for potential physiologic responses, which is a common risk for all
surgical patients?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Infection
C) Hypertension
D) Asthma
, Certified Ambulatory Surgery Nurse (CNAMB) Exam
Answer: B
Explanation: All surgical patients are at risk for infection due to tissue disruption and exposure.
Question 12. What is a legal responsibility of the nurse during preoperative care?
A) Signing the operative note
B) Ensuring all consent forms are completed
C) Prescribing antibiotics
D) Performing surgery
Answer: B
Explanation: The nurse is responsible for confirming all legal documentation, including informed
consent, is complete.
Question 13. Which document allows patients to state their wishes regarding medical treatment if
they become incapacitated?
A) Discharge summary
B) Advance directive
C) Medication list
D) Incident report
Answer: B
Explanation: Advance directives express patient wishes for care if they cannot communicate.
Question 14. What is the purpose of a preoperative checklist?
A) To schedule staff breaks
B) To ensure all preparatory steps are completed
C) To order additional supplies
D) To assign post-op rooms
Answer: B
Explanation: Preoperative checklists help ensure all critical safety and assessment steps are taken
before surgery.
Question 15. Which is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient who expresses fear about
surgery?
A) Risk for infection
B) Anxiety related to surgical procedure
C) Decreased cardiac output
D) Hyperthermia
Answer: B
Explanation: Anxiety related to surgery is a common nursing diagnosis requiring intervention.
Question 16. Which action demonstrates adherence to the Universal Protocol during surgery?
A) Administering preoperative antibiotics
B) Performing a time-out before incision
C) Double-gloving
D) Limiting visitors
Answer: B
Explanation: The time-out is a critical step in the Universal Protocol to verify patient, procedure, and
site.
Question 17. What should the nurse do if a patient lacks understanding of the surgical procedure
after consent is signed?
, Certified Ambulatory Surgery Nurse (CNAMB) Exam
A) Proceed as scheduled
B) Notify the surgeon to provide further explanation
C) Ignore the concern
D) Explain the surgery in detail
Answer: B
Explanation: The surgeon is responsible for ensuring the patient understands the procedure.
Question 18. Which of the following is a sign that a patient may NOT be suitable for ambulatory
surgery?
A) BMI of 22
B) History of obstructive sleep apnea
C) Age 35
D) Stable hypertension
Answer: B
Explanation: Obstructive sleep apnea increases perioperative risk and may preclude ambulatory
surgery.
Question 19. A preoperative nursing diagnosis for a patient with diabetes might include:
A) Risk for unstable blood glucose
B) Risk for malnutrition
C) Risk for dehydration
D) Risk for aspiration
Answer: A
Explanation: Diabetic patients are at risk for unstable blood glucose during the perioperative period.
Question 20. For a patient with an allergy to latex, the nurse should:
A) Ignore the allergy
B) Notify the surgical team and ensure latex-free supplies are used
C) Only inform the anesthesiologist
D) Use latex gloves
Answer: B
Explanation: Latex allergy is serious; all team members must be notified and latex-free products
used.
Question 21. The best way to confirm patient identity before surgery is to:
A) Ask the patient’s family
B) Use two unique identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth)
C) Check the surgical schedule
D) Use a wristband only
Answer: B
Explanation: Using two identifiers helps prevent misidentification and errors.
Question 22. Which factor is MOST important for determining a patient’s discharge readiness?
A) Duration of surgery
B) Stable vital signs and pain control
C) Length of pre-op fasting
D) Type of incision
Answer: B
Explanation: Discharge readiness is based on vital sign stability, pain control, and ability to tolerate
oral intake.
Question 1. What is the primary purpose of preoperative patient assessment in the ambulatory
surgery setting?
A) To reduce staffing needs
B) To ensure suitability and safety for surgery
C) To schedule operating room times
D) To select anesthesia type only
Answer: B
Explanation: Preoperative assessment ensures the patient is medically and physically appropriate for
ambulatory surgery, reducing risks and planning individualized care.
Question 2. Which medication should be specifically reconciled due to increased bleeding risk prior
to surgery?
A) Vitamin C
B) Warfarin
C) Acetaminophen
D) Lisinopril
Answer: B
Explanation: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases bleeding risk and must be carefully
managed before surgery.
Question 3. A patient with ASA Physical Status Classification III is best described as:
A) A healthy patient
B) A patient with mild systemic disease
C) A patient with severe systemic disease
D) A patient with life-threatening disease
Answer: C
Explanation: ASA III denotes a patient with severe systemic disease, which impacts suitability for
ambulatory procedures.
Question 4. When assessing risk for postoperative nausea and vomiting, which factor is MOST
significant?
A) Patient age
B) Smoking status
C) History of motion sickness
D) Height
Answer: C
Explanation: A history of motion sickness or previous PONV increases the risk for postoperative
nausea and vomiting.
Question 5. What is an essential component of medication reconciliation in the preoperative phase?
A) Listing only prescription drugs
B) Omitting over-the-counter medications
C) Including all supplements and herbal products
D) Focusing on vitamins only
Answer: C
Explanation: All supplements and herbal products can affect surgical outcomes and must be included
in medication reconciliation.
Question 6. Which of the following is NOT appropriate when assessing a patient's airway prior to
ambulatory surgery?
, Certified Ambulatory Surgery Nurse (CNAMB) Exam
A) Evaluating mouth opening
B) Assessing neck mobility
C) Ignoring dental status
D) Checking for loose teeth
Answer: C
Explanation: Dental status is critical for airway assessment and must not be ignored.
Question 7. What is the primary reason for assessing BMI before ambulatory surgery?
A) Determining anesthesia cost
B) Assessing risk for complications and suitability for surgery
C) Assigning room numbers
D) Calculating medication doses for all drugs
Answer: B
Explanation: High BMI can increase anesthetic and surgical risk, influencing suitability for ambulatory
surgery.
Question 8. Which of the following is a NANDA-approved nursing diagnosis relevant for preoperative
patients?
A) Ineffective airway clearance
B) Hypertension
C) Diabetes mellitus
D) Fractured femur
Answer: A
Explanation: Ineffective airway clearance is a NANDA-approved nursing diagnosis related to
perioperative care.
Question 9. What is the Universal Protocol designed to prevent?
A) Infection
B) Wrong-site, wrong-procedure, wrong-patient surgery
C) Medication errors
D) Staff injuries
Answer: B
Explanation: The Universal Protocol ensures surgical safety by preventing wrong-site, wrong-
procedure, and wrong-patient errors.
Question 10. Which action is a key step in obtaining informed consent?
A) The nurse signs the form for the patient
B) The surgeon explains the procedure, risks, and alternatives
C) Only the anesthesiologist speaks with the patient
D) The patient is not allowed to ask questions
Answer: B
Explanation: The surgeon must explain the procedure, associated risks, and alternatives for informed
consent.
Question 11. When planning for potential physiologic responses, which is a common risk for all
surgical patients?
A) Hyperglycemia
B) Infection
C) Hypertension
D) Asthma
, Certified Ambulatory Surgery Nurse (CNAMB) Exam
Answer: B
Explanation: All surgical patients are at risk for infection due to tissue disruption and exposure.
Question 12. What is a legal responsibility of the nurse during preoperative care?
A) Signing the operative note
B) Ensuring all consent forms are completed
C) Prescribing antibiotics
D) Performing surgery
Answer: B
Explanation: The nurse is responsible for confirming all legal documentation, including informed
consent, is complete.
Question 13. Which document allows patients to state their wishes regarding medical treatment if
they become incapacitated?
A) Discharge summary
B) Advance directive
C) Medication list
D) Incident report
Answer: B
Explanation: Advance directives express patient wishes for care if they cannot communicate.
Question 14. What is the purpose of a preoperative checklist?
A) To schedule staff breaks
B) To ensure all preparatory steps are completed
C) To order additional supplies
D) To assign post-op rooms
Answer: B
Explanation: Preoperative checklists help ensure all critical safety and assessment steps are taken
before surgery.
Question 15. Which is an appropriate nursing diagnosis for a patient who expresses fear about
surgery?
A) Risk for infection
B) Anxiety related to surgical procedure
C) Decreased cardiac output
D) Hyperthermia
Answer: B
Explanation: Anxiety related to surgery is a common nursing diagnosis requiring intervention.
Question 16. Which action demonstrates adherence to the Universal Protocol during surgery?
A) Administering preoperative antibiotics
B) Performing a time-out before incision
C) Double-gloving
D) Limiting visitors
Answer: B
Explanation: The time-out is a critical step in the Universal Protocol to verify patient, procedure, and
site.
Question 17. What should the nurse do if a patient lacks understanding of the surgical procedure
after consent is signed?
, Certified Ambulatory Surgery Nurse (CNAMB) Exam
A) Proceed as scheduled
B) Notify the surgeon to provide further explanation
C) Ignore the concern
D) Explain the surgery in detail
Answer: B
Explanation: The surgeon is responsible for ensuring the patient understands the procedure.
Question 18. Which of the following is a sign that a patient may NOT be suitable for ambulatory
surgery?
A) BMI of 22
B) History of obstructive sleep apnea
C) Age 35
D) Stable hypertension
Answer: B
Explanation: Obstructive sleep apnea increases perioperative risk and may preclude ambulatory
surgery.
Question 19. A preoperative nursing diagnosis for a patient with diabetes might include:
A) Risk for unstable blood glucose
B) Risk for malnutrition
C) Risk for dehydration
D) Risk for aspiration
Answer: A
Explanation: Diabetic patients are at risk for unstable blood glucose during the perioperative period.
Question 20. For a patient with an allergy to latex, the nurse should:
A) Ignore the allergy
B) Notify the surgical team and ensure latex-free supplies are used
C) Only inform the anesthesiologist
D) Use latex gloves
Answer: B
Explanation: Latex allergy is serious; all team members must be notified and latex-free products
used.
Question 21. The best way to confirm patient identity before surgery is to:
A) Ask the patient’s family
B) Use two unique identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth)
C) Check the surgical schedule
D) Use a wristband only
Answer: B
Explanation: Using two identifiers helps prevent misidentification and errors.
Question 22. Which factor is MOST important for determining a patient’s discharge readiness?
A) Duration of surgery
B) Stable vital signs and pain control
C) Length of pre-op fasting
D) Type of incision
Answer: B
Explanation: Discharge readiness is based on vital sign stability, pain control, and ability to tolerate
oral intake.
