TESTBANK FOR NURSE 4003B HESI
PHARMACOLOGY V2
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• A client is being treated for hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse knows that
the action of this drug is to
A) decrease the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood.
B) increase the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood.
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C) increase the amount of T4 and decrease the amount of T3 produced by the thyroid.
D) inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland.
D) inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland.
PTU is an adjunct therapy used to control hyperthyroidism by inhibiting production of thyroid hormones (D). It
is often prescribed in preparation for thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine therapy. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
(TSH) is produced by the pituitary gland, and PTU does not affect the pituitary (A and B). PTU inhibits the
synthesis of all thyroid hormones--both T3 and T4(C).
, • A client has myxedema, which results from a deficiency of thyroid hormone synthesis in adults.
The nurse knows that which medication should be contraindicated for this client?
A) Liothyronine (Cytomel) to replace iodine.
B) Furosemide (Lasix) for relief of fluid retention.
C) Pentobarbital sodium (Nembutal Sodium) for sleep.
D) Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for angina pain.
C) Pentobarbital sodium (Nembutal Sodium) for sleep.
Persons with myxedema are dangerously hypersensitive to narcotics, barbiturates (C), and anesthetics. They do
tolerate liothyronine (Cytomel) (A) and usually receive iodine replacement therapy. These clients are also
susceptible to heart problems such as angina for which nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) (D) would be indicated, and
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congestive heart failure for which furosemide (Lasix) (B) would be indicated.
• Which change in data indicates to the nurse that the desired effect of the angiotensin II receptor
antagonist valsartan (Diovan) has been achieved?
A) Dependent edema reduced from +3 to +1.
B) Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55 mg/dl.
C) Pulse rate reduced from 150 to 90 beats/minute.
D) Blood pressure reduced from 160/90 to 130/80.
D) Blood pressure reduced from 160/90 to 130/80.
Diovan is an angiotensin receptor blocker, prescribed for the treatment of hypertension. The desired effect is a
decrease in blood pressure (D). (A, B, and C) do not describe effects of Diovan.
, • A client is receiving digoxin for the onset of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). Which
laboratory findings should the nurse identify that places this client at risk?
A) Hypokalemia.
B) Hyponatremia.
C) Hypercalcemia.
D) Low uric acid levels.
A) Hypokalemia.
Hypokalemia affects myocardial contractility, so (A) places this client at greatest risk for dysrhythmias that
may be unresponsive to drug therapy. Although an imbalance of serum electrolytes, (B and C), can effect
cardiac rhythm, the greatest risk for the client receiving digoxin is (A). (D) does not cause any interactions
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related to digoxin therapy for supraventricular tachycardia (SVT).
• Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release
oxycodone prescription?
A) As needed.
B) Every 12 hours.
C) Every 24 hours.
D) Every 4 to 6 hours.
B) Every 12 hours.
A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve moderate to severe pain, so a dosing
schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the best around-the-clock pain management. Controlled-release
oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as needed schedule (A). (C) is inadequate for
continuous pain management. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours (D) may jeopardize patient safety due to
cumulative effects.
, • postoperative client has been receiving a continuous IV infusion of meperidine (Demerol) 35
mg/hr for four days. The client has a PRN prescription for Demerol 100 mg PO q3h. The nurse notes that
the client has become increasingly restless, irritable and confused, stating that there are bugs all over the
walls. What action should the nurse take first?
A) Administer a PRN dose of the PO meperidine (Demerol).
B) Administer naloxone (Narcan) IV per PRN protocol.
C) Decrease the IV infusion rate of the meperidine (Demerol) per protocol.
D) Notify the healthcare provider of the client's confusion and hallucinations.
C) Decrease the IV infusion rate of the meperidine (Demerol) per protocol.
The client is exhibiting symptoms of Demerol toxicity, which is consistent with the large dose of Demerol
received over four days. (C) is the most effective action to immediately decrease the amount of serum Demerol.
(A) will increase the toxic level of medication in the bloodstream. Naloxone (B) is an opioid antagonist that is
used during an opioid overdose, but it is not beneficial during Demerol toxicity and can precipitate seizures.
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The healthcare provider should be notified (D), but that is not the initial action the nurse should take; first the
amount of drug infusing should be decreased.
• A client is being treated for osteoporosis with alendronate (Fosamax), and the nurse has
completed discharge teaching regarding medication administration. Which morning schedule would
indicate to the nurse that the client teaching has been effective?
A) Take medication, go for a 30 minute morning walk, then eat breakfast.
B) Take medication, rest in bed for 30 minutes, eat breakfast, go for morning walk.
C) Take medication with breakfast, then take a 30 minute morning walk.
D) Go for a 30 minute morning walk, eat breakfast, then take medication.
A) Take medication, go for a 30 minute morning walk, then eat breakfast.
Alendronate (Fosamax) is best absorbed when taken thirty minutes before eating in the morning. The client
should also be advised to remain in an upright position for at least thirty minutes after taking the medication to
reduce the risk of esophageal reflux and irritation. (A) is the best schedule to meet these needs. (B, C, and D)
do not meet these criteria.
PHARMACOLOGY V2
Get Instant Access to 100% Verified Test Bank Questions! | Complete, Accurate, and Up to Date |
Fully Verified Answers | Instant Download Available Right After Purchase | Perfect for
Study Prep, Tutors, or Self-Practice | Trusted by Students & Educators.
• A client is being treated for hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse knows that
the action of this drug is to
A) decrease the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood.
B) increase the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood.
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C) increase the amount of T4 and decrease the amount of T3 produced by the thyroid.
D) inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland.
D) inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland.
PTU is an adjunct therapy used to control hyperthyroidism by inhibiting production of thyroid hormones (D). It
is often prescribed in preparation for thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine therapy. Thyroid-stimulating hormone
(TSH) is produced by the pituitary gland, and PTU does not affect the pituitary (A and B). PTU inhibits the
synthesis of all thyroid hormones--both T3 and T4(C).
, • A client has myxedema, which results from a deficiency of thyroid hormone synthesis in adults.
The nurse knows that which medication should be contraindicated for this client?
A) Liothyronine (Cytomel) to replace iodine.
B) Furosemide (Lasix) for relief of fluid retention.
C) Pentobarbital sodium (Nembutal Sodium) for sleep.
D) Nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) for angina pain.
C) Pentobarbital sodium (Nembutal Sodium) for sleep.
Persons with myxedema are dangerously hypersensitive to narcotics, barbiturates (C), and anesthetics. They do
tolerate liothyronine (Cytomel) (A) and usually receive iodine replacement therapy. These clients are also
susceptible to heart problems such as angina for which nitroglycerin (Nitrostat) (D) would be indicated, and
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congestive heart failure for which furosemide (Lasix) (B) would be indicated.
• Which change in data indicates to the nurse that the desired effect of the angiotensin II receptor
antagonist valsartan (Diovan) has been achieved?
A) Dependent edema reduced from +3 to +1.
B) Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55 mg/dl.
C) Pulse rate reduced from 150 to 90 beats/minute.
D) Blood pressure reduced from 160/90 to 130/80.
D) Blood pressure reduced from 160/90 to 130/80.
Diovan is an angiotensin receptor blocker, prescribed for the treatment of hypertension. The desired effect is a
decrease in blood pressure (D). (A, B, and C) do not describe effects of Diovan.
, • A client is receiving digoxin for the onset of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). Which
laboratory findings should the nurse identify that places this client at risk?
A) Hypokalemia.
B) Hyponatremia.
C) Hypercalcemia.
D) Low uric acid levels.
A) Hypokalemia.
Hypokalemia affects myocardial contractility, so (A) places this client at greatest risk for dysrhythmias that
may be unresponsive to drug therapy. Although an imbalance of serum electrolytes, (B and C), can effect
cardiac rhythm, the greatest risk for the client receiving digoxin is (A). (D) does not cause any interactions
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related to digoxin therapy for supraventricular tachycardia (SVT).
• Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release
oxycodone prescription?
A) As needed.
B) Every 12 hours.
C) Every 24 hours.
D) Every 4 to 6 hours.
B) Every 12 hours.
A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve moderate to severe pain, so a dosing
schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the best around-the-clock pain management. Controlled-release
oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as needed schedule (A). (C) is inadequate for
continuous pain management. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6 hours (D) may jeopardize patient safety due to
cumulative effects.
, • postoperative client has been receiving a continuous IV infusion of meperidine (Demerol) 35
mg/hr for four days. The client has a PRN prescription for Demerol 100 mg PO q3h. The nurse notes that
the client has become increasingly restless, irritable and confused, stating that there are bugs all over the
walls. What action should the nurse take first?
A) Administer a PRN dose of the PO meperidine (Demerol).
B) Administer naloxone (Narcan) IV per PRN protocol.
C) Decrease the IV infusion rate of the meperidine (Demerol) per protocol.
D) Notify the healthcare provider of the client's confusion and hallucinations.
C) Decrease the IV infusion rate of the meperidine (Demerol) per protocol.
The client is exhibiting symptoms of Demerol toxicity, which is consistent with the large dose of Demerol
received over four days. (C) is the most effective action to immediately decrease the amount of serum Demerol.
(A) will increase the toxic level of medication in the bloodstream. Naloxone (B) is an opioid antagonist that is
used during an opioid overdose, but it is not beneficial during Demerol toxicity and can precipitate seizures.
SmartStudyHq
The healthcare provider should be notified (D), but that is not the initial action the nurse should take; first the
amount of drug infusing should be decreased.
• A client is being treated for osteoporosis with alendronate (Fosamax), and the nurse has
completed discharge teaching regarding medication administration. Which morning schedule would
indicate to the nurse that the client teaching has been effective?
A) Take medication, go for a 30 minute morning walk, then eat breakfast.
B) Take medication, rest in bed for 30 minutes, eat breakfast, go for morning walk.
C) Take medication with breakfast, then take a 30 minute morning walk.
D) Go for a 30 minute morning walk, eat breakfast, then take medication.
A) Take medication, go for a 30 minute morning walk, then eat breakfast.
Alendronate (Fosamax) is best absorbed when taken thirty minutes before eating in the morning. The client
should also be advised to remain in an upright position for at least thirty minutes after taking the medication to
reduce the risk of esophageal reflux and irritation. (A) is the best schedule to meet these needs. (B, C, and D)
do not meet these criteria.
