A+
TEST BANK FOR NR 509 PHARMACOLOGY
HESI PRACTICE EXAM 3
Get Instant Access to 100% Verified Test Bank Questions! |📘 Complete, Accurate, and Up to Date | ✅
Fully Verified Answers |⚡ Instant Download Available Right After Purchase |🎓 Perfect for Study Prep,
Tutors, or Self-Practice |💯 Trusted by Students & Educators.
1. A client with mild Parkinsonism is started on oral amantadine (Symmetrel). What statement
accurately describes the action of this medication?
Answer: dopamine in central nervous system is increased
2. A 52-year-old client is admitted to the hospital for possible duodenal ulcers. The healthcare
provider prescribes ranitidine hydrochloride (Zantac) 150 mg BID PO. Which data would
SmartStudyHq
indicate that this medication is effective?
Answer: Within 4 hours after meals, the client denies having pain.
3. A 78-year-old client with congestive heart failure receives the cardiac glycoside digoxin (Lanoxin)
0.25 mg PO daily. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the medication has been
effective?
Answer: Clear breath sounds anteriorly and posteriorly
4. Minocycline (Minocin) 50 mg every 8 hours is prescribed for an adolescent girl diagnosed with
acne. The nurse discusses self-care with the client while she is taking the medication. Which
teaching points should be included in the discussion? (Select all that apply.)
Answer: Report vaginal itching or discharge.
5. Protect skin from natural and artificial ultraviolet light. Avoid driving until response to
medication is known.
Answer: Use a nonhormonal method of contraception if sexually active.
6. The nurse is assessing a stuporous client in the emergency department who is suspected of
overdosing with opioids. Which agent should the nurse prepare to administer if the client
becomes comatose?
Answer: Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan)
1
, A+
7. The healthcare provider prescribes captopril (Capoten) 37.5 mg. The medication is available in
25 mg tablets. What should the nurse administer?
Answer: 1½ tablets
8. A client who is HIV positive is receiving epoetin (Epogen) for management of anemia secondary
to zidovudine (AZT) therapy. Which laboratory finding is most important for the nurse to report
to the healthcare provider?
Answer: Hematocrit (HCT) of 58%
9. A 75-year-old male client taking hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) is admitted to the hospital having
"palpitations" and "skipped heart beats." What is the most likely cause of these symptoms given the
client's medication history?
Answer: Hypokalemia
10. Which parameter is most important for the nurse to check prior to administering a subcutaneous
injection of heparin?
SmartStudyHq
A. Heart rate
B. Urinary output
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time, commonly referred to as aPTT
Rationale:
The laboratory value that measures heparin's therapeutic anticoagulation time is the aPTT (C). (A) should be
checked before the administration of digoxin. (B) is valuable information but not a parameter measured for
heparin therapy. (D) is evaluated during anticoagulation therapy using sodium warfarin (Coumadin).
2
, A+
11. A client is prescribed a cholinesterase inhibitor, and a family member asks the nurse how this
medication works. Which pharmacophysiologic explanation should the nurse use to describe this
class of drug?
Answer: Improves nerve impulse transmission
12. In developing a nursing care plan for a 9-month-old infant with cystic fibrosis, the nurse writes a
nursing diagnosis of Alteration in nutrition: less than body requirements, related to inadequate
digestion of nutrients. Which intervention would best meet this child's needs?
Answer: Give pancrelipase (Cotazym-S) capsule mixed with applesauce before each meal.
13. When providing client teaching about the administration of methylphenidate (Ritalin) to the
mother of a child diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactive disorder (ADHD), what
instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Answer: Offer the child the medication before eating breakfast and after eating lunch.
SmartStudyHq
14. Alteration of which laboratory finding represents achievement of a therapeutic goal for heparin
administration?
Answer: Partial thromboplastin time
15. The charge nurse is reviewing the admission history and physical data for four clients newly
admitted to the unit. Which client is at greatest risk for adverse reactions to medications?
A. 30-year-old man with a fracture
B. 7-year-old child with an ear infection
C. 75-year-old woman with liver disease
D. 50-year-old man with an upper respiratory tract infection
A. 75-year-old woman with liver disease
Rationale:
Impaired hepatic metabolic pathways for drug and chemical degradation place (C) at greatest risk for adverse
reactions to medications based on advancing age and liver disease. (A and D) have no predisposing factors,
such as genetics, pathophysiologic dysfunction, or drug allergies, that would increase the risk for cumulative
toxicity or adverse drug reactions. (B) is at risk for dose-related adverse reactions but is at less risk than (C).
3
, A+
16. The healthcare provider prescribes ipratropium (Atrovent) for a client. An allergic reaction to
what other medication would cause the nurse to question the prescription for Atrovent?
Answer: Atropine sulfate (Atropine)
17 68-year-old client has been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. The healthcare provider
prescribes pilocarpine (Isopto Carpine) eye drops. What action of this drug makes it a useful
treatment for the client's condition?
Answer: The outflow of aqueous humor in the eyes is increased.
18 The nurse is preparing to apply a surface anesthetic agent for a client. Which action should the
nurse implement to reduce the risk of systemic absorption?
A. Apply the anesthetic to mucous membranes.
SmartStudyHq
B. Limit the area of application to inflamed areas.
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic.
D. Spread the topical agent over a large surface area.
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic
Rationale:
To minimize systemic absorption of topical anesthetics, the anesthetic agent should be applied to the smallest
surface area of intact skin (C). Application to the mucous membranes poses the greatest risk (A) of systemic
absorption because absorption occurs more readily through mucous membranes than through the skin.
Inflamed areas generally have an increased blood supply, which increases the risk of systemic absorption, so
(B) should be avoided. A large surface area increases the amount of topical drug that is available for
transdermal absorption, so the smallest area should be covered, not (D).
4
TEST BANK FOR NR 509 PHARMACOLOGY
HESI PRACTICE EXAM 3
Get Instant Access to 100% Verified Test Bank Questions! |📘 Complete, Accurate, and Up to Date | ✅
Fully Verified Answers |⚡ Instant Download Available Right After Purchase |🎓 Perfect for Study Prep,
Tutors, or Self-Practice |💯 Trusted by Students & Educators.
1. A client with mild Parkinsonism is started on oral amantadine (Symmetrel). What statement
accurately describes the action of this medication?
Answer: dopamine in central nervous system is increased
2. A 52-year-old client is admitted to the hospital for possible duodenal ulcers. The healthcare
provider prescribes ranitidine hydrochloride (Zantac) 150 mg BID PO. Which data would
SmartStudyHq
indicate that this medication is effective?
Answer: Within 4 hours after meals, the client denies having pain.
3. A 78-year-old client with congestive heart failure receives the cardiac glycoside digoxin (Lanoxin)
0.25 mg PO daily. Which observation by the nurse indicates that the medication has been
effective?
Answer: Clear breath sounds anteriorly and posteriorly
4. Minocycline (Minocin) 50 mg every 8 hours is prescribed for an adolescent girl diagnosed with
acne. The nurse discusses self-care with the client while she is taking the medication. Which
teaching points should be included in the discussion? (Select all that apply.)
Answer: Report vaginal itching or discharge.
5. Protect skin from natural and artificial ultraviolet light. Avoid driving until response to
medication is known.
Answer: Use a nonhormonal method of contraception if sexually active.
6. The nurse is assessing a stuporous client in the emergency department who is suspected of
overdosing with opioids. Which agent should the nurse prepare to administer if the client
becomes comatose?
Answer: Naloxone hydrochloride (Narcan)
1
, A+
7. The healthcare provider prescribes captopril (Capoten) 37.5 mg. The medication is available in
25 mg tablets. What should the nurse administer?
Answer: 1½ tablets
8. A client who is HIV positive is receiving epoetin (Epogen) for management of anemia secondary
to zidovudine (AZT) therapy. Which laboratory finding is most important for the nurse to report
to the healthcare provider?
Answer: Hematocrit (HCT) of 58%
9. A 75-year-old male client taking hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) is admitted to the hospital having
"palpitations" and "skipped heart beats." What is the most likely cause of these symptoms given the
client's medication history?
Answer: Hypokalemia
10. Which parameter is most important for the nurse to check prior to administering a subcutaneous
injection of heparin?
SmartStudyHq
A. Heart rate
B. Urinary output
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR)
C. Activated partial thromboplastin time, commonly referred to as aPTT
Rationale:
The laboratory value that measures heparin's therapeutic anticoagulation time is the aPTT (C). (A) should be
checked before the administration of digoxin. (B) is valuable information but not a parameter measured for
heparin therapy. (D) is evaluated during anticoagulation therapy using sodium warfarin (Coumadin).
2
, A+
11. A client is prescribed a cholinesterase inhibitor, and a family member asks the nurse how this
medication works. Which pharmacophysiologic explanation should the nurse use to describe this
class of drug?
Answer: Improves nerve impulse transmission
12. In developing a nursing care plan for a 9-month-old infant with cystic fibrosis, the nurse writes a
nursing diagnosis of Alteration in nutrition: less than body requirements, related to inadequate
digestion of nutrients. Which intervention would best meet this child's needs?
Answer: Give pancrelipase (Cotazym-S) capsule mixed with applesauce before each meal.
13. When providing client teaching about the administration of methylphenidate (Ritalin) to the
mother of a child diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactive disorder (ADHD), what
instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
Answer: Offer the child the medication before eating breakfast and after eating lunch.
SmartStudyHq
14. Alteration of which laboratory finding represents achievement of a therapeutic goal for heparin
administration?
Answer: Partial thromboplastin time
15. The charge nurse is reviewing the admission history and physical data for four clients newly
admitted to the unit. Which client is at greatest risk for adverse reactions to medications?
A. 30-year-old man with a fracture
B. 7-year-old child with an ear infection
C. 75-year-old woman with liver disease
D. 50-year-old man with an upper respiratory tract infection
A. 75-year-old woman with liver disease
Rationale:
Impaired hepatic metabolic pathways for drug and chemical degradation place (C) at greatest risk for adverse
reactions to medications based on advancing age and liver disease. (A and D) have no predisposing factors,
such as genetics, pathophysiologic dysfunction, or drug allergies, that would increase the risk for cumulative
toxicity or adverse drug reactions. (B) is at risk for dose-related adverse reactions but is at less risk than (C).
3
, A+
16. The healthcare provider prescribes ipratropium (Atrovent) for a client. An allergic reaction to
what other medication would cause the nurse to question the prescription for Atrovent?
Answer: Atropine sulfate (Atropine)
17 68-year-old client has been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. The healthcare provider
prescribes pilocarpine (Isopto Carpine) eye drops. What action of this drug makes it a useful
treatment for the client's condition?
Answer: The outflow of aqueous humor in the eyes is increased.
18 The nurse is preparing to apply a surface anesthetic agent for a client. Which action should the
nurse implement to reduce the risk of systemic absorption?
A. Apply the anesthetic to mucous membranes.
SmartStudyHq
B. Limit the area of application to inflamed areas.
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic.
D. Spread the topical agent over a large surface area.
C. Avoid abraded skin areas when applying the anesthetic
Rationale:
To minimize systemic absorption of topical anesthetics, the anesthetic agent should be applied to the smallest
surface area of intact skin (C). Application to the mucous membranes poses the greatest risk (A) of systemic
absorption because absorption occurs more readily through mucous membranes than through the skin.
Inflamed areas generally have an increased blood supply, which increases the risk of systemic absorption, so
(B) should be avoided. A large surface area increases the amount of topical drug that is available for
transdermal absorption, so the smallest area should be covered, not (D).
4
