Pharmacology for Care of the Family – Chamberlain |
Verified Questions & Answers | A+ Graded
Instructions
This document contains 50 high-yield questions for the NR566 Advanced Pharmacology for
Care of the Family Final Exam at Chamberlain University, focusing on key pharmacological
concepts. Questions are multiple-choice or select-all-that-apply (SATA), each with a scenario,
options, correct answer(s) in dark red, and a brief rationale. All questions are verified for
accuracy based on current pharmacological guidelines and course content.
Question 1
Which medication is first-line for generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) in a 35-year-old patient
with no comorbidities?
A. Alprazolam (Xanax)
B. Sertraline (Zoloft)
C. Buspirone (BuSpar)
D. Amitriptyline (Elavil)
Correct Answer: B. Sertraline (Zoloft)
Rationale: SSRIs like sertraline are first-line for GAD due to efficacy and safety. Alprazolam
(A) is for acute anxiety, buspirone (C) is second-line, and amitriptyline (D) is for depression or
neuropathic pain.
Question 2
A patient with community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) is prescribed antibiotics. Which is
appropriate for a healthy adult with no recent antibiotic exposure?
A. Levofloxacin (Levaquin)
B. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
C. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin)
D. Vancomycin (Vancocin)
Correct Answer: B. Amoxicillin (Amoxil)
Rationale: Amoxicillin is first-line for CAP in healthy adults due to its efficacy against
,Streptococcus pneumoniae. Levofloxacin (A) is for resistant cases, ceftriaxone (C) is for
hospitalized patients, and vancomycin (D) is for MRSA.
Question 3
Which monitoring is required for a patient starting trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim) for
a UTI? (Select all that apply.)
A. CBC for blood disorders
B. CD4+ counts for HIV patients
C. Potassium levels 4 days after initiation
D. Liver function tests
Correct Answers: A, B, C
Rationale: Monitor CBC for hematologic toxicity, CD4+ counts in HIV patients, and potassium
for hyperkalemia risk. Liver function tests (D) are not routinely required.
Question 4
A patient with epilepsy requires adjunctive therapy for partial seizures. Which medication is
FDA-approved for this indication?
A. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
B. Levetiracetam (Keppra)
C. Gabapentin (Neurontin)
D. Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Correct Answer: C. Gabapentin (Neurontin)
Rationale: Gabapentin is FDA-approved for adjunctive therapy in partial seizures. Others are
used but not specifically approved for this indication.
Question 5
What is the first-line treatment for migraine prevention in a 40-year-old patient?
A. Triptans
B. Beta-blockers
C. Ergot alkaloids
D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
, Correct Answer: B. Beta-blockers
Rationale: Beta-blockers like propranolol are first-line for migraine prevention. Triptans (A)
treat acute migraines, ergot alkaloids (C) are less common, and diphenhydramine (D) is not
indicated.
Question 6
Which drug class is most likely to promote Clostridium difficile infection?
A. Penicillins
B. Cephalosporins
C. Macrolides
D. Tetracyclines
Correct Answer: B. Cephalosporins
Rationale: Cephalosporins, especially second- and third-generation, are strongly associated with
C. difficile due to gut flora disruption.
Question 7
A patient on warfarin is prescribed an antibiotic. Which should be avoided to prevent increased
bleeding risk?
A. Amoxicillin
B. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
C. Doxycycline
D. Azithromycin
Correct Answer: B. Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole
Rationale: Trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole potentiates warfarin’s effect, increasing INR and
bleeding risk. Others have minimal interaction.
Question 8
What baseline data is needed before prescribing tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)?
A. Liver function tests
B. ECG
C. Renal function tests
D. Thyroid function tests