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NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health Practicum Final Actual Exam Test Bank Newest 2025/2026 With Complete Questions And Correct Answers with Rationales|Already Graded A+| An adolescent client, diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, discloses an incestuous relationship to a nurse. What is the most therapeutic response by the nurse? 1. "It's okay. Let's talk about this." 2. "Have you discussed this with your primary healthcare provider?" 3. "Can you tell me how you feel about what happened?" 4. "Tell me more about what happened when you were younger." - Correct Answer :3. Correct: The nurse is using a therapeutic approach by encouraging the client to express feelings about the relationship using an open-ended question. 1. Incorrect: The nurse is providing false reassurance by saying, "It's okay." This is a statement not a question to see how the client feels about talking with the nurse. The nurse should use open-ended questions to determine whether or not the client wishes to discuss the incestuous relationship further at this time. NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health Practicum Final Actual Exam A+ TEST BANK 2 2. Incorrect: This is a non-therapeutic, closed ended question that only requires a yes or no answer. This is not a priority at this time. An open ended question will allow the nurse to see if the client is ready to share with the nurse. 4. Incorrect: The nurse should not probe for a factual account about a past event and should keep the focus of the discussion on the client's feelings about the event. Again, this is a statement, not an open ended question. A client is seen in the clinic for recurrent, unexplained, vague stomach pain over the past 5 years. Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD), colonoscopy, gallbladder ultrasound, and lab results have revealed no physical reason for the pain. The client tells the nurse, "the pain is so bad sometimes that I can't function!" What disorder is this client likely experiencing? 1. Conversion disorder 2. Pseudocyesis 3. Somatization disorder 4. Dysmorphic disorder – Correct Answer :3. Correct: Somatization disorder is a syndrome of multiple somatic symptoms that cannot be explained medically and are associated with psychosocial distress and long-term seeking of assistance from healthcare professionals. Symptoms are vague, dramatized, or exaggerated in presentation. The disorder impairs social, occupational and other forms of functioning. 1. Incorrect: Conversion disorder is a loss of or change in body function resulting from a psychological conflict, the physical symptoms of which cannot be explained by any known medical disorder. This disorder affects voluntary motor or sensory functioning suggestive of a neurological disease. 2. Incorrect: Pseudocyesis is false pregnancy that may represent a strong desire to be pregnant. The client has nearly all the usual signs and symptoms of pregnancy such as enlarged abdomen, weight gain, cessation of menses and morning sickness.. NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health Practicum Final Actual Exam A+ TEST BANK 3 4. Incorrect: Dysmorphic disorder is characterized by the exaggerated belief that the body is deformed or defective in some way. Most common complaints are slight flaws of face or head, such as thinning hair, acne, wrinkles. The nurse is admitting an adolescent reporting severe depression and amenorrhea. What additional assessment findings by the nurse would suggest the client may develop anorexia nervosa? Select all that apply 1. Tight fitting clothes 2. Oily, elastic skin 3. Brittle, dry nails 4. Gingival infections 5. Low blood pressure - Correct Answer :3. & 5. Correct: This client is reporting symptoms consistent with anorexia nervosa, a serious and potentially life-threatening eating disorder that develops secondary to the type of family or social stress experienced in adolescence. In addition to severe depression and amenorrhea, the nurse has identified brittle, dry nails, and a low blood pressure secondary to weight loss as additional indications of anorexia nervosa. 1. Incorrect: Despite the fact that anorexic clients experience severe weight loss, they continue to view themselves as heavy and generally wear loose fitting clothing to hide what they perceive as an overweight body. 2. Incorrect: Because of skeletal muscle atrophy and poor nutritional intake, anorexic clients display sallow, dry skin with brittle nails and hair. Oily, non-elastic skin would not be noted in a client with anorexia nervosa.

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NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health
Practicum Final Actual Exam
NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health
Practicum Final Actual Exam Test Bank
Newest 2025/2026 With Complete
Questions And Correct Answers with
Rationales|Already Graded A+|


An adolescent client, diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, discloses an incestuous relationship to a nurse.
What is the most therapeutic response by the nurse?



1. "It's okay. Let's talk about this."

2. "Have you discussed this with your primary healthcare provider?"

3. "Can you tell me how you feel about what happened?"

4. "Tell me more about what happened when you were younger."




- Correct Answer :3. Correct: The nurse is using a therapeutic approach by encouraging the client to
express feelings about the relationship using an open-ended question.



1. Incorrect: The nurse is providing false reassurance by saying, "It's okay." This is a statement not a
question to see how the client feels about talking with the nurse. The nurse should use open-ended
questions to determine whether or not the client wishes to discuss the incestuous relationship further at
this time.




A+ TEST BANK 1

, NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health
Practicum Final Actual Exam
2. Incorrect: This is a non-therapeutic, closed ended question that only requires a yes or no answer. This
is not a priority at this time. An open ended question will allow the nurse to see if the client is ready to
share with the nurse.



4. Incorrect: The nurse should not probe for a factual account about a past event and should keep the
focus of the discussion on the client's feelings about the event. Again, this is a statement, not an open
ended question.



A client is seen in the clinic for recurrent, unexplained, vague stomach pain over the past 5 years.
Esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD), colonoscopy, gallbladder ultrasound, and lab results have revealed
no physical reason for the pain. The client tells the nurse, "the pain is so bad sometimes that I can't
function!" What disorder is this client likely experiencing?



1. Conversion disorder

2. Pseudocyesis

3. Somatization disorder

4. Dysmorphic disorder –



Correct Answer :3. Correct: Somatization disorder is a syndrome of multiple somatic symptoms that
cannot be explained medically and are associated with psychosocial distress and long-term seeking of
assistance from healthcare professionals. Symptoms are vague, dramatized, or exaggerated in
presentation. The disorder impairs social, occupational and other forms of functioning.



1. Incorrect: Conversion disorder is a loss of or change in body function resulting from a psychological
conflict, the physical symptoms of which cannot be explained by any known medical disorder. This
disorder affects voluntary motor or sensory functioning suggestive of a neurological disease.



2. Incorrect: Pseudocyesis is false pregnancy that may represent a strong desire to be pregnant. The client
has nearly all the usual signs and symptoms of pregnancy such as enlarged abdomen, weight gain,
cessation of menses and morning sickness..




A+ TEST BANK 2

, NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health
Practicum Final Actual Exam
4. Incorrect: Dysmorphic disorder is characterized by the exaggerated belief that the body is deformed or
defective in some way. Most common complaints are slight flaws of face or head, such as thinning hair,
acne, wrinkles.



The nurse is admitting an adolescent reporting severe depression and amenorrhea. What additional
assessment findings by the nurse would suggest the client may develop anorexia nervosa?



Select all that apply



1. Tight fitting clothes

2. Oily, elastic skin

3. Brittle, dry nails

4. Gingival infections

5. Low blood pressure



- Correct Answer :3. & 5. Correct: This client is reporting symptoms consistent with anorexia nervosa, a
serious and potentially life-threatening eating disorder that develops secondary to the type of family or
social stress experienced in adolescence. In addition to severe depression and amenorrhea, the nurse has
identified brittle, dry nails, and a low blood pressure secondary to weight loss as additional indications of
anorexia nervosa.



1. Incorrect: Despite the fact that anorexic clients experience severe weight loss, they continue to view
themselves as heavy and generally wear loose fitting clothing to hide what they perceive as an
overweight body.



2. Incorrect: Because of skeletal muscle atrophy and poor nutritional intake, anorexic clients display
sallow, dry skin with brittle nails and hair. Oily, non-elastic skin would not be noted in a client with
anorexia nervosa.




A+ TEST BANK 3

, NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health
Practicum Final Actual Exam
4. Incorrect: Gingival infections and dental caries are typical of clients with bulimia, another eating
disorder in which stomach acid from frequent vomiting causes gum infections or dental caries. This is not
common in anorexics.



A teenage client asks the nurse, "Do you think I should tell my parents about my sexuality?" What is the
nurse's best response?



1. "What do you think you should do?"

2. "Absolutely, I think you should tell your parents."

3. "Don't you think your parents have the right to know about your sexuality?"

4. "I do not think now is the right time to tell your parents. Wait until you are 21."



- Correct Answer :1. Correct: It is better to say "What do you think you should do?" This helps the client
reflect on options and does not have the nurse tell the client what to do. It is much more therapeutic to
help the client make the decision for themselves, instead of the nurse. This prevents any biases from
impacting the outcome.



2. Incorrect: All of these responses give advice to the client. Telling the client what to do or how to
behave which implies that the nurse knows what is best and that the client is not capable of making any
decisions.



3. Incorrect: All of these responses give advice to the client. Telling the client what to do or how to
behave which implies that the nurse knows what is best and that the client is not capable of making any
decisions.



4. Incorrect: All of these responses give advice to the client. Telling the client what to do or how to
behave which implies that the nurse knows what is best and that the client is not capable of making any
decisions.



A client diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease tells the nurse, "I haven't eaten all day. When am I going to
eat?" The nurse noted that the client ate 100% of the provided lunch 45 minutes ago. What would be the
best way for the nurse to respond?
A+ TEST BANK 4

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