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NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health Practicum Final Actual Exam Test Bank Newest 2025/2026 With Complete Questions And Correct Answers with Rationales|Already Graded A+|

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A+ TEST BANK 1 NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health Practicum Final Actual Exam Test Bank Newest 2025/2026 With Complete Questions And Correct Answers with Rationales|Already Graded A+| A male client with schizophrenia who is taking fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin decanoate) is being discharged in the morning. A repeat dose of medication is scheduled for 20 days after discharge. The client tells the nurse that he is going on vacation in the Bahamas and will return in 18 days. Which statement by the client indicates a need for health teaching? A) Two weeks after I return from my tropical island vacation, I will go to the clinic to get my Prolixin injection. B) While I am on vacation and when I return, I will not eat or drink anything that contains alcohol. C) I will notify the healthcare provider if I have a sore throat or flu-like symptoms. D) I will continue to take my benztropine mesylate (Cogentin) every day. - Correct Answer :Photosensitivity is a side effect of Prolixin and a vacation in the Bahamas (with its tropical island climate) increases the client's chance of experiencing this side effect. He should be instructed to avoid direct sun (A) and wear sunscreen. (B, C, and D) indicate accurate knowledge. Alcohol acts synergistically with Prolixin (B). (C) lists signs of agranulocytosis, which is also a side effect of Prolixin. In order to avoid extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), anticholinergic drugs, such as Cogentin, are often prescribed prophylactically with Prolixin. Correct Answer(s): A A male client is admitted to the mental health unit because he was feeling depressed about the loss of his wife and job. The client has a history of alcohol dependency and admits that he was drinking alcohol 12 hours ago. Vital signs are: temperature, 100° F, pulse 100, and BP 142/100. The nurse plans to give the client lorazepam (Ativan) based on which priority nursing diagnosis? NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health Practicum Final Actual Exam A+ TEST BANK 2 A) Risk for injury related to suicidal ideation. B) Risk for injury related to alcohol detoxification. C) Knowledge deficit related to ineffective coping. D) Health seeking behaviors related to personal crisis. - Correct Answer :The most important nursing diagnosis is related to alcohol detoxification (B) because the client has elevated vital signs, a sign of alcohol detoxification. Maintaining client safety related to (A) should be addressed after giving the client Ativan for elevated vital signs secondary to alcohol withdrawal. (C and D) can be addressed when immediate needs for safety are met. Correct Answer(s): B The charge nurse is collaborating with the nursing staff about the plan of care for a client who is very depressed. What is the most important intervention to implement during the first 48 hours after the client's admission to the unit? A) Monitor appetite and observe intake at meals. B) Maintain safety in the client's milieu. C) Provide ongoing, supportive contact. D) Encourage participation in activities. - Correct Answer :The most important reason for closely observing a depressed client immediately after admission is to maintain safety (B), since suicide is a risk with depression. (A, C, and D) are all important interventions, but safety is the priority. Correct Answer(s): B A 38-year-old female client is admitted with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. When her tray is brought to her, she refuses to eat and tells the nurse, "I know you are trying to poison me with that food." Which response is most appropriate for the nurse to make? A) I'll leave your tray here. I am available if you need anything else. NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health Practicum Final Actual Exam A+ TEST BANK 3 B) You're not being poisoned. Why do you think someone is trying to poison you? C) No one on this unit has ever died from poisoning. You're safe here. D) I will talk to your healthcare provider about the possibility of changing your diet. - Correct Answer :(A) is the best choice cited. The nurse does not argue with the client nor demand that she eat, but offers support by agreeing to "be there if needed", e.g., to warm the food. (B and C) are arguing with the client's delusions, and (B) asks "why" which is usually not a good question for a psychotic client. (D) has nothing to do with the actual problem; i.e., the problem is not the diet (she thinks any food given to her is poisoned.) Correct Answer(s): A A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the nurse take? A) Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote. B) Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug. C) Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage. D) Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug. - Correct Answer :Early side effects of lithium carbonate (occurring with serum lithium levels below 2.0 mEq per liter) generally follow a progressive pattern beginning with diarrhea, vomiting, drowsiness, and muscular weakness. At higher levels, ataxia, tinnitus, blurred vision, and large dilute urine output may occur. (B) is the best choice. Although these are expected symptoms, the healthcare provider should be notified prior to the next administration of the drug. (A, C, and D) would not reflect good nursing judgment. Correct Answer(s): B The parents of a 14-year-old boy bring their son to the hospital. He is lethargic, but responsive. The mother states, "I think he took some of my pain pills." During initial assessment of the teenager, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the parents?

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NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health
Practicum Final Actual Exam
NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health
Practicum Final Actual Exam Test Bank
Newest 2025/2026 With Complete
Questions And Correct Answers with
Rationales|Already Graded A+|
A male client with schizophrenia who is taking fluphenazine decanoate (Prolixin decanoate) is being
discharged in the morning. A repeat dose of medication is scheduled for 20 days after discharge. The
client tells the nurse that he is going on vacation in the Bahamas and will return in 18 days. Which
statement by the client indicates a need for health teaching?

A) Two weeks after I return from my tropical island vacation, I will go to the clinic to get my Prolixin
injection.

B) While I am on vacation and when I return, I will not eat or drink anything that contains alcohol.

C) I will notify the healthcare provider if I have a sore throat or flu-like symptoms.

D) I will continue to take my benztropine mesylate (Cogentin) every day.



- Correct Answer :Photosensitivity is a side effect of Prolixin and a vacation in the Bahamas (with its
tropical island climate) increases the client's chance of experiencing this side effect. He should be
instructed to avoid direct sun (A) and wear sunscreen. (B, C, and D) indicate accurate knowledge. Alcohol
acts synergistically with Prolixin (B). (C) lists signs of agranulocytosis, which is also a side effect of Prolixin.
In order to avoid extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS), anticholinergic drugs, such as Cogentin, are often
prescribed prophylactically with Prolixin.



Correct Answer(s): A



A male client is admitted to the mental health unit because he was feeling depressed about the loss of his
wife and job. The client has a history of alcohol dependency and admits that he was drinking alcohol 12
hours ago. Vital signs are: temperature, 100° F, pulse 100, and BP 142/100. The nurse plans to give the
client lorazepam (Ativan) based on which priority nursing diagnosis?

A+ TEST BANK 1

, NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health
Practicum Final Actual Exam
A) Risk for injury related to suicidal ideation.

B) Risk for injury related to alcohol detoxification.

C) Knowledge deficit related to ineffective coping.

D) Health seeking behaviors related to personal crisis.



- Correct Answer :The most important nursing diagnosis is related to alcohol detoxification (B) because
the client has elevated vital signs, a sign of alcohol detoxification. Maintaining client safety related to (A)
should be addressed after giving the client Ativan for elevated vital signs secondary to alcohol withdrawal.
(C and D) can be addressed when immediate needs for safety are met.



Correct Answer(s): B



The charge nurse is collaborating with the nursing staff about the plan of care for a client who is very
depressed. What is the most important intervention to implement during the first 48 hours after the
client's admission to the unit?

A) Monitor appetite and observe intake at meals.

B) Maintain safety in the client's milieu.

C) Provide ongoing, supportive contact.

D) Encourage participation in activities.



- Correct Answer :The most important reason for closely observing a depressed client immediately after
admission is to maintain safety (B), since suicide is a risk with depression. (A, C, and D) are all important
interventions, but safety is the priority.



Correct Answer(s): B



A 38-year-old female client is admitted with a diagnosis of paranoid schizophrenia. When her tray is
brought to her, she refuses to eat and tells the nurse, "I know you are trying to poison me with that
food." Which response is most appropriate for the nurse to make?

A) I'll leave your tray here. I am available if you need anything else.

A+ TEST BANK 2

, NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health
Practicum Final Actual Exam
B) You're not being poisoned. Why do you think someone is trying to poison you?

C) No one on this unit has ever died from poisoning. You're safe here.

D) I will talk to your healthcare provider about the possibility of changing your diet.



- Correct Answer :(A) is the best choice cited. The nurse does not argue with the client nor demand that
she eat, but offers support by agreeing to "be there if needed", e.g., to warm the food. (B and C) are
arguing with the client's delusions, and (B) asks "why" which is usually not a good question for a psychotic
client. (D) has nothing to do with the actual problem; i.e., the problem is not the diet (she thinks any food
given to her is poisoned.)



Correct Answer(s): A



A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and
drowsiness. What action should the nurse take?

A) Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.

B) Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.

C) Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.

D) Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug.



- Correct Answer :Early side effects of lithium carbonate (occurring with serum lithium levels below 2.0
mEq per liter) generally follow a progressive pattern beginning with diarrhea, vomiting, drowsiness, and
muscular weakness. At higher levels, ataxia, tinnitus, blurred vision, and large dilute urine output may
occur. (B) is the best choice. Although these are expected symptoms, the healthcare provider should be
notified prior to the next administration of the drug. (A, C, and D) would not reflect good nursing
judgment.



Correct Answer(s): B



The parents of a 14-year-old boy bring their son to the hospital. He is lethargic, but responsive. The
mother states, "I think he took some of my pain pills." During initial assessment of the teenager, what
information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the parents?

A+ TEST BANK 3

, NR605 Psychiatric-Mental Health
Practicum Final Actual Exam
A) If he has seemed depressed recently.

B) If a drug overdose has ever occurred before.

C) If he might have taken any other drugs.

D) If he has a desire to quit taking drugs.



- Correct Answer :Knowledge of all substances taken (C) will guide further treatment, such as
administration of antagonists, so obtaining this information has the highest priority. (A and B) are also
valuable in planning treatment. (D) is not appropriate during the acute management of a drug overdose.



Correct Answer(s): C



The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the nurse, "What exactly is
schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?" Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this family
member?

A) It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.

B) It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.

C) Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.

D) I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.



- Correct Answer :The nurse should answer the client's question with factual information and explain that
schizophrenia is a chemical imbalance in the brain (B). (A) is a therapeutic response but does not answer
the question, and may be an appropriate response after the nurse answers the question asked. Although
(C) is likely true to some degree, it is also true that some clients continue to have disorganized thinking
even with antipsychotic medications. Referring the spouse to the psychologist (D) is avoiding the issue;
the nurse can and should answer the question.



Correct Answer(s): B



The community health nurse talks to a male client who has bipolar disorder. The client explains that he
sleeps 4 to 5 hours a night and is working with his partner to start two new businesses and build an

A+ TEST BANK 4

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