AAPD QE Pediatric Dentistry Exam Questions and Correct Answers – Caries, Periodontal Disease, Oral Health

Description: Verified AAPD QE exam questions and answers for pediatric dentistry. Covers dental caries, periodontal disease, immunity, epidemiology, and oral health management in children. A reliable study guide for dental board candidates. How do plaques from caries-active subjects and caries-free subjects compare? a. Caries-free plaques have significantly higher proportions of Mutans Strep b. In the caries-active plaques, pH levels of 5.0 or lower may persist for several hours after sugar exposure. c. Non-cariogenic plaques per unit of plaque protein are slightly more acidogenic than cariogenic plaques. d. Streptococcus salivarius of only the caries-active plaques readily convert sucrose to lactic acid at pH 5 - answerb. In the caries-active plaques, pH levels of 5.0 or lower may persist for several hours after sugar exposure. 2. Which of the following appears to be important primarily in smooth-surface decay? a. Actinobacillus actinomycetemcomitans b. Lactobacillus species c. Streptococcus sanguis d. Streptococcus sobrinus - answerd. Page1 Streptococcus sobrinus 3. Critical pH for dissolution of enamel has been shown to be about: a. 5.0. b. 5.2. c. 5.5. d. 5.7. - answerc. 5.5. 4. Epidemiologic evidence suggests which permanent tooth surface is most prone to caries? a. Buccal b. Interproximal c. Lingual d. Occlusal - answerd. Occlusal 5. Which best describes the transmission of Mutans streptococci from primary caregiver to child? a. Diagonal b. Horizontal c. Tangential d. Vertical - answerd. Vertical 6. Which drug is known to induce gingival hyperplasia? a. Azathioprine b. Cyclosporine c. Diazepam d. Methotrexate - answerb. Cyclosporine 7. Under the 2017 classification scheme for periodontal and peri-implant diseases and conditions, stages of periodontal disease are based upon: a. age at onset and chronicity. b. anticipated treatment response. c. risk of rapid progression. d. severity and complexity. - answerd. severity and complexity. 8. The primary parameter to define gingivitis cases is: a. bleeding on probing. b. erythema. c. loss of stippling. d. visible plaque. - answera. bleeding on probing 9. Early-onset periodontitis patients having high concentrations of which antibody have significantly less attachment loss than patients who lack this antibody? a. IgA b. IgE c. IgG d. IgM - answerc. IgG 10. Which type of vaccine is the human papilloma virus vaccine? a. Inactivated b. Live-attenuated c. Recombinant d. Toxoid - answerc. Recombinant 11. Innate immunity differs from other types of immune responses due to: a. inability to discriminate between a group of related pathogens. b. increase with repeated exposure to a given pathogen. c. its presence in all individuals at all times. Page2 d. mediation by clonal selection of antigen-specific lymphocytes - answerc. its presence in all individuals at all times. 12. Acquired immune responses depend upon: a. granulocytes. b. lymphocytes. c. macrophages. d. polymorphonuclear leukocytes. - answerb. lymphocytes. 13. Opsonization is a process in which antibodies contribute to immunity through: a. activating the proteins of the complement system. b. binding to and neutralizing the pathogen to prevent cell entry. c. coating the surface of a pathogen to enhance phagocytosis. d. lysing microorganisms directly by forming pores in their membranes. - answerc. coating the surface of a pathogen to enhance phagocytosis. 14. Which of the following is a primary organ of the immune system? a. Bone marrow b. Lymph nodes c. Mucosa d. Spleen - answera. Bone marrow 15. Presence of a positive odds ratio indicates: a. a particular exposure does not affect the odds of the outcome. b. a particular exposure is associated with higher odds of the outcome. c. a particular exposure is associated with lower odds of the outcome. d. an association between exposure and outcome is statistically significant. - answerb. a particular exposure is associated with higher odds of the outcome. 16. Which of the following reflects expectations for clinical practice guidelines (CPG)? a. CPG are based upon a consensus of expert opinions. b. CPG are designed to produce minimal standards of care. c. CPG are informed by a systematic review of evidence. d. Deviations should be fairly rare and often cannot be justified. - answerc. CPG are informed by a systematic review of evidence. 17. When biological variables are distributed in a bell shaped curve, Page3 approximately what percentage of the population lies within one standard deviation of the mean? a. 25 b. 35 c. 50 d. 70 - answerd. 70 18. What epidemiologic term refers to the extent to which a study is free from bias? a. Blind allocation of subjects b. External validity c. Internal validity d. Precision - answerc. Internal validity? 19. The researcher's ability to offer each study participant an equal chance of being assigned to any study group is unique to which study design? a. Prospective cohort study b. Prospective case control study c. Randomized clinical trial d. Retrospective case control study - answerc. Randomized clinical trial 20. A test's ability to accurately determine the presence of caries when it is present is a measure of: a. false positive rate. b. sensitivity. c. specificity. d. true negative rate. - answerb. sensitivity. 21. The standard set for drinking water by the Environmental Protection Agency and the measure recommended by the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention for dental unit water used in nonsurgical procedures is how many colony forming units per milliliter (CFU/mL)? a. ≤150 b. ≤500 c. ≤1000 d. ≤1500 - answerb. ≤500 22. Which of the following is consistent with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention's recommendations for infection control for handpieces used for dental prophylaxis? a. All non-disposable components of the handpiece should always be heat sterilized between patients. b. All non-disposable components of the handpiece should be sterilized between patients, but using a barrier for the motor is an acceptable alternative. c. Sterilize all reusable prophylaxis heads and the nose cones and perform high-level disinfection of the handpiece Page4 motor between patients. d. Use only disposable prophylaxis heads and perform high level disinfection of the nose cone and motor of the handpiece between patients. - answera. All non-disposable components of the handpiece should always be heat sterilized between patients. 23. Which of the following is most resistant to germicidal chemicals? a. Bacterial spores b. Fungi c. Mycobacteria d. Non-lipid viruses - answera. Bacterial spores 24. Mycobacterium abscessus: a. can form a biofilm and replicate within waterline tubing. b. displays high susceptibility to commonly used disinfectants. c. is a slow-growing non-tuberculous mycobacterium. d. is commonly associated with acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis. - answera. can form a biofilm and replicate within waterline tubing. 25. How many children in the United States aged 2 - 5 years are affected by caries? a. 1 in 2 b. 1 in 3 c. 1 in 4 d. 1 in 5 - answerc. 1 in 4 26. Of the following, which is the best predictor of caries risk? a. Fluoride exposure b. Frequency of tooth brushing c. Past caries experience d. Presence of visible plaque - answerc. Past caries experience 27. Active surveillance of enamel lesions is based on the concept that: a. economic credentialing may limit access to the operating room. b. parents have the right to refuse restorative treatment for their children. c. pre-cooperative behaviors in the very young often necessitate deferral of care. d. treatment may only be necessary if there is disease progression. - answerd. treatment may only be necessary if there is disease progression. 28. Which is considered a confounding variable in the development of caries lesions? a. Diet b. Fluoride exposure c. Salivary flow d. Socioeconomic status - answerd. Socioeconomic status? 29. White Page5 spot lesions on primary teeth are classified as: a. disease indicator. b. indicator of poor oral hygiene. c. risk factor. d. risk indicator. - answera. disease indicator. 30. Linear enamel hypoplasia is normally seen on: a. cervical third of primary maxillary central incisors. b. cervical third of primary maxillary first molars. c. incisal edge of mandibular primary incisors. d. middle third of primary maxillary central incisors. - answerd. middle third of primary maxillary central incisors. 31. According to evidence-based recommendations, practitioners should avoid using an explorer to: a. assess the quality of dentin in a prepared tooth. b. detect marginal discrepancies of existing restorations. c. probe questionable occlusal surfaces. d. remove plaque from buccal and lingual tooth surfaces. - answerc. probe questionable occlusal surfaces. 32. Carbonated soda consumption is negatively associated with intake of which vitamin in all age strata? a. A b. C c. D d. E - answera. A 33. Deficiency of which vitamin is most likely to occur when following a vegetarian diet? a. B-12 b. C c. Folate d. Riboflavin - answera. B-12 34. Studies on oral health benefits associated with the use of xylitol: a. are conclusive for significant reduction of incidence of caries in children. b. consistently show long term Mutans streptococci reduction. c. demonstrate that xylitol is readily metabolized by oral bacteria. d. use large doses and high frequency unrealistic for clinical practice. - answerd. use large doses and high frequency unrealistic for clinical practice. 35. What is the daily recommended intake of calcium for a toddler (1-3 year old)? a. 250 milligrams b. 500 milligrams c. 700 milligrams d. 1000 Page6 milligrams - answerb. 500 milligrams 36. The World Health Organization recommends no more than what percentage of adult's calories should come from sugars? a. 5 b. 10 c. 16 d. 20 - answerb. 10 37. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends limiting juice for children under 3 years to: a. 4 ounces daily. b. 8 ounces daily. c. 12 ounces daily. d. 16 ounces daily. - answera. 4 ounces daily. 38. Food insecurity is a risk factor for: a. anemia. b. child abuse. c. diabetes. d. obesity in adolescents. - answerd. obesity in adolescents. 39. The recommended level of Vitamin D supplementation for infants under 12 months is: a. 10 IU/d. b. 400 IU/d. c. 600 IU/d. d. none unless signs of Ricketts. - answerb. 400 IU/d. 40. Toxic effects of fluoride are seen at: a. 0.25 mg F/kg . b. 5 mg F/kg. c. 10 mg F/kg. d. 15 mg F/kg. - answerb. 5 mg F/kg. 41. The lethal dose of fluoride for a child is: a. 5 mg F/kg. b. 10 mg F/kg. c. 15 mg F/kg. d. 20 mg F/kg. - answerc. 15 mg F/kg. 42. The main effect of fluoride is: a. antibacterial. b. increased pH from topical exposure. c. incorporation into enamel from systemic supplement. d. remineralization from topical exposure. - answerd. remineralization from topical exposure. 43. When infants are fed formula reconstituted with fluoridated water, it is recommended to: a. avoid using fluoridated toothpaste until age 2. b. prescribe a systemic fluoride supplement. c. use a pea-sized amount of toothpaste starting at age 1. d. use a smear of toothpaste until age 3. - answera. avoid using fluoridated toothpaste until age 2. 44. A functional indicator of effectiveness of silver diamine fluoride therapy is: a. no post