CEA Prep Exam Questions & Answers.
1. The patient is exhibiting a productive Left upper lobe lingula
cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described
on PA view shows a left lower chest in this question precisely. If the cardiac mar-
area of consolidation adjacent to the gin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the
left border of the heart approximate- lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper
ly 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic lobe lingula.
angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window posterior
to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the
most likely location of this area of focal
consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
2. The inability to fully relax the myocardi- Diastolic dysfunction
um during relaxation is a trademark of Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a
which of the following diagnoses? trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunc-
tion and is common in patients with thickened
hypertrophic myocardium.
3. An otherwise healthy African American Calcium channel blocker
adult male has been diagnosed with Rationale: African American patients per JNC8
hypertension. He has been restricting Hypertension Guidelines should be managed
his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line man-
and exercising more, but his blood pres- agement therapy for hypertension not at goal
sure is still elevated. Which is the BEST
4.
medication to prescribe him?
, CEA Prep Exam Questions & Answers.
with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
, CEA Prep Exam Questions & Answers.
Your patient has been diagnosed with CT angiography of the chest
a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Rationale: CT angiography is considered the
Which medical imaging is considered standard of care for measuring vascular lumi-
standard of care for serial surveillance? nal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is
not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for
the pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is
able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are
not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction
needed to accurately measure the size. Trans-
esophageal echo is not needed to accurately
measure the aorta and requires the patient to
undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
5. Which of the following medications phenylephrine
does not cause beta 1 stimulation? Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1
receptors. The remaining three all have beta
receptor activity.
6. A 50-year-old woman with a history of Congestive heart failure
hypertension presents with dyspnea on Rationale: Of the available options, the most
exertion and orthopnea. On examina- accurate response is congestive heart failure
tion, she has jugular venous distention as it is signifying both a right ventricular back
and bilateral crackles on lung ausculta- up with jugular venous extension and crackles
tion. What is the most likely diagnosis? on lung assault, which are suggestive of left
ventricular back up. it is possible the patient
may have an acute myocardial infarction that
precipitated this, however, a patient has not de-
scribed that, rather is only describing dyspnea
on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak
to a state of fluid overload. The only appropriate
response of these available is congestive heart
failure.
, CEA Prep Exam Questions & Answers.
1. The patient is exhibiting a productive Left upper lobe lingula
cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is described
on PA view shows a left lower chest in this question precisely. If the cardiac mar-
area of consolidation adjacent to the gin/silhouette is obliterated by the mass, the
left border of the heart approximate- lesion is either right middle lobe or left upper
ly 2 rib spaces above the costophrenic lobe lingula.
angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window posterior
to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the
most likely location of this area of focal
consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
2. The inability to fully relax the myocardi- Diastolic dysfunction
um during relaxation is a trademark of Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax is a
which of the following diagnoses? trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunc-
tion and is common in patients with thickened
hypertrophic myocardium.
3. An otherwise healthy African American Calcium channel blocker
adult male has been diagnosed with Rationale: African American patients per JNC8
hypertension. He has been restricting Hypertension Guidelines should be managed
his salt intake, eating a DASH (Dietary with a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker
Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line man-
and exercising more, but his blood pres- agement therapy for hypertension not at goal
sure is still elevated. Which is the BEST
4.
medication to prescribe him?
, CEA Prep Exam Questions & Answers.
with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
, CEA Prep Exam Questions & Answers.
Your patient has been diagnosed with CT angiography of the chest
a 4.5cm ascending aortic aneurysm. Rationale: CT angiography is considered the
Which medical imaging is considered standard of care for measuring vascular lumi-
standard of care for serial surveillance? nal dimensions with contrast. CT PE protocol is
not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for
the pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is
able to catch large aneurysms at times, they are
not able to provide multi-axis reconstruction
needed to accurately measure the size. Trans-
esophageal echo is not needed to accurately
measure the aorta and requires the patient to
undergo sedation which is unnecessary.
5. Which of the following medications phenylephrine
does not cause beta 1 stimulation? Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1
receptors. The remaining three all have beta
receptor activity.
6. A 50-year-old woman with a history of Congestive heart failure
hypertension presents with dyspnea on Rationale: Of the available options, the most
exertion and orthopnea. On examina- accurate response is congestive heart failure
tion, she has jugular venous distention as it is signifying both a right ventricular back
and bilateral crackles on lung ausculta- up with jugular venous extension and crackles
tion. What is the most likely diagnosis? on lung assault, which are suggestive of left
ventricular back up. it is possible the patient
may have an acute myocardial infarction that
precipitated this, however, a patient has not de-
scribed that, rather is only describing dyspnea
on exertion and orthopnea, which both speak
to a state of fluid overload. The only appropriate
response of these available is congestive heart
failure.
, CEA Prep Exam Questions & Answers.
