CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam Questions & Answers.
1. The patient is exhibiting a productive Left upper lobe lingula
cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is
described
on PA view shows a left lower in this question precisely. If the cardiac
chest area of consolidation mar- gin/silhouette is obliterated by the
adjacent to the left border of the mass, the lesion is either right middle
heart approximate- ly 2 rib spaces lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
above the costophrenic angle. The
lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window
posterior to the cardiac silhouette.
Which is the most likely location
of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
Diastolic dysfunction
2. The inability to fully relax the Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax
myocardi- um during relaxation is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic
is a trademark of which of the dysfunc- tion and is common in patients
following diagnoses? with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per
3. An otherwise healthy African JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be
American adult male has been managed with a dihydropyridine calcium
diagnosed with hypertension. He channel blocker such as amlodipine
has been restricting his salt (Norvasc) as first line man-
intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension)
diet,
, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam Questions & Answers.
and exercising more, but his blood pres- agement therapy for hypertension no
at goal
sure is still elevated. Which is the with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
BEST medication to prescribe
him?
4.
, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam Questions & Answers.
Your patient has been diagnosed CT angiography of the chest
with a 4.5cm ascending aortic Rationale: CT angiography is considered
aneurysm. the standard of care for measuring
Which medical imaging is vascular lumi- nal dimensions with
considered standard of care for contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed
serial surveillance? properly for the aorta (it's timed for the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain film
is able to catch large aneurysms at times,
they are not able to provide multi-axis
reconstruction needed to accurately
measure the size. Trans- esophageal
echo is not needed to accurately
measure the aorta and requires the
patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
5. Which of the following
medications does not cause phenylephrine
beta 1 stimulation? Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates
alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three all
have beta receptor activity.
6. A 50-year-old woman with a Congestive heart failure
history of
hypertension presents with dyspnea on Rationale: Of the available options, the
most
exertion and orthopnea. On accurate response is congestive heart
examina- tion, she has jugular failure as it is signifying both a right
venous distention and bilateral ventricular back up with jugular venous
crackles on lung ausculta- tion. extension and crackles on lung assault,
What is the most likely diagnosis? which are suggestive of left ventricular
back up. it is possible the patient may
have an acute myocardial infarction that
, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam Questions & Answers.
precipitated this, however, a patient has not de- scribed The only appropriate response of these
that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and available is congestive heart failure.
orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload.
1. The patient is exhibiting a productive Left upper lobe lingula
cough and a low-grade fever. Chest X-ray Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is
described
on PA view shows a left lower in this question precisely. If the cardiac
chest area of consolidation mar- gin/silhouette is obliterated by the
adjacent to the left border of the mass, the lesion is either right middle
heart approximate- ly 2 rib spaces lobe or left upper lobe lingula.
above the costophrenic angle. The
lateral x-ray view shows this
lesion absent of the window
posterior to the cardiac silhouette.
Which is the most likely location
of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lobe apex
*Right middle lobe
*Left upper lobe lingula
*Left lower lobe
Diastolic dysfunction
2. The inability to fully relax the Rationale: The inability for the heart to relax
myocardi- um during relaxation is a trademark of the diagnosis of diastolic
is a trademark of which of the dysfunc- tion and is common in patients
following diagnoses? with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
Calcium channel blocker
Rationale: African American patients per
3. An otherwise healthy African JNC8 Hypertension Guidelines should be
American adult male has been managed with a dihydropyridine calcium
diagnosed with hypertension. He channel blocker such as amlodipine
has been restricting his salt (Norvasc) as first line man-
intake, eating a DASH (Dietary
Approaches to Stop Hypertension)
diet,
, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam Questions & Answers.
and exercising more, but his blood pres- agement therapy for hypertension no
at goal
sure is still elevated. Which is the with DASH and lifestyle modifications.
BEST medication to prescribe
him?
4.
, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam Questions & Answers.
Your patient has been diagnosed CT angiography of the chest
with a 4.5cm ascending aortic Rationale: CT angiography is considered
aneurysm. the standard of care for measuring
Which medical imaging is vascular lumi- nal dimensions with
considered standard of care for contrast. CT PE protocol is not timed
serial surveillance? properly for the aorta (it's timed for the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain film
is able to catch large aneurysms at times,
they are not able to provide multi-axis
reconstruction needed to accurately
measure the size. Trans- esophageal
echo is not needed to accurately
measure the aorta and requires the
patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
5. Which of the following
medications does not cause phenylephrine
beta 1 stimulation? Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates
alpha 1 receptors. The remaining three all
have beta receptor activity.
6. A 50-year-old woman with a Congestive heart failure
history of
hypertension presents with dyspnea on Rationale: Of the available options, the
most
exertion and orthopnea. On accurate response is congestive heart
examina- tion, she has jugular failure as it is signifying both a right
venous distention and bilateral ventricular back up with jugular venous
crackles on lung ausculta- tion. extension and crackles on lung assault,
What is the most likely diagnosis? which are suggestive of left ventricular
back up. it is possible the patient may
have an acute myocardial infarction that
, CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam Questions & Answers.
precipitated this, however, a patient has not de- scribed The only appropriate response of these
that, rather is only describing dyspnea on exertion and available is congestive heart failure.
orthopnea, which both speak to a state of fluid overload.
