AAPD REMEMBERED EXA(ACTUAL
EXAM) WITH CORRECT
QUESTIONS AND WELL
ANSWERED ANSWERS LATEST
2025 - 2026 WELL GRADED A+
Where do epstein pearls occur?
palatal midline of the newborn
Where do Bohn nodules occur?
junction of hard and soft palate of the newborn
What are Bohn nodules remnants of?
minor salivary glands
Where do dental lamina cysts occur?
alveolar mucosa of the newborn
Dental lamina cysts are also known as ______?
gingival cyst of the newborn
A major difference in the growth progression of a
congenital vascular malformation and a hemangioma is
_____?
vascular malformations tend to grow with the child while
hemangiomas tend to regress with age
Complications of a lymphangioma include:
compromised airway, does not regress and may require
surgery
,Neonatal alveolar lymphangioma occurs most commonly
in what demographic?
African American males
Where does a congenital epulis most commonly occur?
Maxillary lateral and canine area
Dental lamina begins formation at _______ embryonic age.
6 weeks
From what structure does dental lamina form?
basal layer of oral epithelium
What structures form from dental lamina?
tooth buds
At what age does the permanent first molar begin
initiation? At what age does the permanent 2nd molar
begin initiation?
1) 16 weeks in utero 2) 4-5 years
Name the components of the tooth bud.
enamel organ, dental papilla, dental sac
Name the components of the enamel organ.
Inner enamel epithelium (concavity), outer enamel epithelium
(convexity), stellate reticulum (center)
The dental papilla forms from ________.
neural crest
Name the stages of tooth development in order.
Bud stage, cap stage, bell stage, advanced bell stage
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath is composed of what
structures?
inner and outer enamel epithelia (not stratum intermedium or
stellate reticulum)
The remnants of Hertwig's root sheath persist as _____.
rests of Malassez
Problems in the initiation stage of tooth development lead
to anomalies of __________.
Tooth number
Problems in the proliferation stage of tooth development
lead to anomalies of __________.
size, proportion, number, twinning
,Problems in the histodifferentiation stage of tooth
development lead to anomalies of ____________.
anomalies of enamel and dentin (enamel hypoplasia, AI, DI,
DD)
Problems in the morphodifferentiation stage of tooth
development lead to _____________.
Anomalies of enamel, dentin, and cementum
Is hyperdontia more common in males or females?
males (2:1)
Is hyperdontia more common in primary or permanent
dentition?
permanent dentition (5:1)
Is hyperdontia more common in the maxilla or the
mandible?
maxilla (9:1)
Name the most common teeth affected by hypodontia in
order of frequency.
3rd molars, mandibular 2nd premolar, maxillary lateral,
maxillary 2nd premolar
Name (9) syndromes associated with hyperdontia.
Apert's, cleidocranial dysplasia, Gardner syndrome, Crouzon
syndrome, Sturge-Weber syndrome, Orofaciodigital syndrome
I, Hallerman-Strieff syndrome, cleft lip and palate, Down
syndrome
Describe features of Apert Syndrome.
supernumerary teeth, cleft palate, delayed/ectopic eruption,
shovel shaped incisors, hypoplastic midface, syndactyly,
craniosynostosis, hypertelorism, class III with anterior openbite,
crowded dentition
Describe features of cleidocranial dysplasia.
supernumerary teeth, delayed development/eruption, midface
hypoplasia, enamel hypoplasia, missing clavicle,
craniosynostosis
Describe features of Gardner Syndrome
supernumerary teeth, osteomas of the jaw, delayed eruption,
colonic polyps
Describe features of Crouzon syndrome.
, supernumerary teeth, midface hypoplasia, inverted V shaped
palate, craniosynostosis, exopthalamos
Describe features of Sturge-Weber syndrome
port-wine stains which follow the trigeminal nerve,
supernumerary teeth, overgrowth of maxilla, ipsilateral gyriform
calcifications of cerebral cortex, 100% have seizures,
hemiplegia, ocular defects, bleeding and gingival hyperplasia,
alveolar bone loss, pyogenic granulomas
Describe features of orofaciodigital syndrome.
supernumerary teeth and/or hypodontia; multiple or
hyperplastic frenula, cleft tongue
In infants, what is the best indicator for future caries?
plaque on maxillary anteriors
A pea-sized amount of fluoridated toothpaste is
appropriate for what age range?
age 2-5
In a child under the age of 3, what factors automatically
assign that child an S-ECC status?
White spot lesions, any carious lesion on a smooth surface
Name 7 factors that assign a high caries risk to a 0-5 year
old.
1) Mother/caregiver with active caries; 2) Parent/caregiver low
SES; 3) greater than three between-meal sugar-containing
snacks or beverages per day; 4) Child is put to bed with a bottle
containing natural or added sugar; 5) child has greater than 1
DMFS; 6) Child has active white spot lesions or enamel
defects; 7) Child has elevated MS levels
Name 3 factors that assign a moderate caries risk to a 0-5
year old.
1) Child has special health care needs; 2) Child is a recent
immigrant; 3) Child has plaque on teeth
Name the 4 caries protective factors.
1) Child receives optimally-fluoridated drinking water or fluoride
supplements; 2) Child has teeth brushed daily with fluoridated
EXAM) WITH CORRECT
QUESTIONS AND WELL
ANSWERED ANSWERS LATEST
2025 - 2026 WELL GRADED A+
Where do epstein pearls occur?
palatal midline of the newborn
Where do Bohn nodules occur?
junction of hard and soft palate of the newborn
What are Bohn nodules remnants of?
minor salivary glands
Where do dental lamina cysts occur?
alveolar mucosa of the newborn
Dental lamina cysts are also known as ______?
gingival cyst of the newborn
A major difference in the growth progression of a
congenital vascular malformation and a hemangioma is
_____?
vascular malformations tend to grow with the child while
hemangiomas tend to regress with age
Complications of a lymphangioma include:
compromised airway, does not regress and may require
surgery
,Neonatal alveolar lymphangioma occurs most commonly
in what demographic?
African American males
Where does a congenital epulis most commonly occur?
Maxillary lateral and canine area
Dental lamina begins formation at _______ embryonic age.
6 weeks
From what structure does dental lamina form?
basal layer of oral epithelium
What structures form from dental lamina?
tooth buds
At what age does the permanent first molar begin
initiation? At what age does the permanent 2nd molar
begin initiation?
1) 16 weeks in utero 2) 4-5 years
Name the components of the tooth bud.
enamel organ, dental papilla, dental sac
Name the components of the enamel organ.
Inner enamel epithelium (concavity), outer enamel epithelium
(convexity), stellate reticulum (center)
The dental papilla forms from ________.
neural crest
Name the stages of tooth development in order.
Bud stage, cap stage, bell stage, advanced bell stage
Hertwig's epithelial root sheath is composed of what
structures?
inner and outer enamel epithelia (not stratum intermedium or
stellate reticulum)
The remnants of Hertwig's root sheath persist as _____.
rests of Malassez
Problems in the initiation stage of tooth development lead
to anomalies of __________.
Tooth number
Problems in the proliferation stage of tooth development
lead to anomalies of __________.
size, proportion, number, twinning
,Problems in the histodifferentiation stage of tooth
development lead to anomalies of ____________.
anomalies of enamel and dentin (enamel hypoplasia, AI, DI,
DD)
Problems in the morphodifferentiation stage of tooth
development lead to _____________.
Anomalies of enamel, dentin, and cementum
Is hyperdontia more common in males or females?
males (2:1)
Is hyperdontia more common in primary or permanent
dentition?
permanent dentition (5:1)
Is hyperdontia more common in the maxilla or the
mandible?
maxilla (9:1)
Name the most common teeth affected by hypodontia in
order of frequency.
3rd molars, mandibular 2nd premolar, maxillary lateral,
maxillary 2nd premolar
Name (9) syndromes associated with hyperdontia.
Apert's, cleidocranial dysplasia, Gardner syndrome, Crouzon
syndrome, Sturge-Weber syndrome, Orofaciodigital syndrome
I, Hallerman-Strieff syndrome, cleft lip and palate, Down
syndrome
Describe features of Apert Syndrome.
supernumerary teeth, cleft palate, delayed/ectopic eruption,
shovel shaped incisors, hypoplastic midface, syndactyly,
craniosynostosis, hypertelorism, class III with anterior openbite,
crowded dentition
Describe features of cleidocranial dysplasia.
supernumerary teeth, delayed development/eruption, midface
hypoplasia, enamel hypoplasia, missing clavicle,
craniosynostosis
Describe features of Gardner Syndrome
supernumerary teeth, osteomas of the jaw, delayed eruption,
colonic polyps
Describe features of Crouzon syndrome.
, supernumerary teeth, midface hypoplasia, inverted V shaped
palate, craniosynostosis, exopthalamos
Describe features of Sturge-Weber syndrome
port-wine stains which follow the trigeminal nerve,
supernumerary teeth, overgrowth of maxilla, ipsilateral gyriform
calcifications of cerebral cortex, 100% have seizures,
hemiplegia, ocular defects, bleeding and gingival hyperplasia,
alveolar bone loss, pyogenic granulomas
Describe features of orofaciodigital syndrome.
supernumerary teeth and/or hypodontia; multiple or
hyperplastic frenula, cleft tongue
In infants, what is the best indicator for future caries?
plaque on maxillary anteriors
A pea-sized amount of fluoridated toothpaste is
appropriate for what age range?
age 2-5
In a child under the age of 3, what factors automatically
assign that child an S-ECC status?
White spot lesions, any carious lesion on a smooth surface
Name 7 factors that assign a high caries risk to a 0-5 year
old.
1) Mother/caregiver with active caries; 2) Parent/caregiver low
SES; 3) greater than three between-meal sugar-containing
snacks or beverages per day; 4) Child is put to bed with a bottle
containing natural or added sugar; 5) child has greater than 1
DMFS; 6) Child has active white spot lesions or enamel
defects; 7) Child has elevated MS levels
Name 3 factors that assign a moderate caries risk to a 0-5
year old.
1) Child has special health care needs; 2) Child is a recent
immigrant; 3) Child has plaque on teeth
Name the 4 caries protective factors.
1) Child receives optimally-fluoridated drinking water or fluoride
supplements; 2) Child has teeth brushed daily with fluoridated
