NR 507 EDAPT FINAL QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
1. One of the first pathophysiological responses to the decreased GFR in acute
renal failure is: activation of the RAA system
2. A pre-renal cause of acute renal failure is: hypotension
3. Pre-renal is the most common cause of acute renal failure. True
4. One of the major markers for glomerular filtration rate is creatinine. True
5. Which of the following is true regarding creatinine? Creatinine gets
freely filtered from the glomerulus
6. Which of the following is the best indicator of a good prognosis for
recovery from acute renal failure? Kidney responds to Lasix
7. In post-renal failure, the damage occurs in the collecting duct. True
8. In intrinsic renal failure, sodium and water excretion is increased which
leads to a dilute urine. True
9. One of the issues that requires management of a patient with acute
renal failure is hypokalemia false, hyperkalemia needs to be
managed
10. Which of the following can help to prevent a UTI? Increased water
consumption
11. A symptom of a lower urinary tract infection includes: urgency
12. Women are at a higher risk for the development of a UTI because of
having a shorter urethra. True
13. Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of a urinary
tract infection (UTI)? Pregnancy
14. Which of the following is true regarding a complicated urinary tract
infection? Can be caused by a structural urinary tract disorder
15. Upon examination of a urinalysis, the NP can highly suspect that the
causative bacteria are gram negative because of the presence of: nitrites
16. The urinalysis of a patient with a complicated UTI will show WBCs and
casts. True
17. A common organism that causes a urinary tract infection include:
staphylococcus saprophyticus
18. The NP would know that the patient most likely has an uncomplicated UTI
because: the UTI responds well to a short course of antibiotic therapy
19. The patient most often develops symptoms of BPH when: the
prostatic urethra becomes obstructed
20. There is a significant risk for men with benign prostatic hyperplasia
(BPH) to develop cellular mutations that lead to prostate cancer. False
21. The peripheral zone of the prostate is the largest zone.true
22. The purpose of straining in BPH is to overcome the obstruction
encountered during urination. True
,23. On a digital rectal exam to assess the quality of the prostate, the NP would
be concerned with which of the following findings? a hard nodule
24. Irritative BPH- nocturia, urinary frequency, urgency that results
from bladder hypertrophy and dysfunction.
25. Obstructive BPH- Incomplete emptying, postvoid dribbling
26. The location of the characteristic hyperplastic nodules of BPH is:
periurethral zone
27. Men who have BPH are prone to developing a UTI because: stagnated
urine in the bladder promotes bacterial growth
28. The prostate specific antigen (PSA) helps to liquefy semen post-ejaculation.
True
, 29. The underlying cause of BPH is that normal prostate cells respond to
increases in dihydrotestosterone that causes them to live longer and
multiply. True
30. The action of a 5-Alpha-reductase inhibitor causes: shrinkage of the
prostate gland
31. Renal calculi are typically confined to the bladder. False
32. The gold standard for diagnosing a renal stone is a urinalysis. False, CT
scan
33. The most common type of stone is: calcium stone
34. Renal stones are formed when calcium and oxalate in the urine combine.
True
35. The type of stone that forms due to a urinary tract infection is: struvite
stone
36. Lithotripsy is an invasive procedure used to break up the stone. false
37. Renal colic is caused by the passing of the stone through the ureter. True
38. The most common stone found in the patient with gout is: uric acid stone
39. At least half of individuals with renal stones will have a reoccurrence
within 10 years of the prior stone. True
40. Hematuria can be seen with kidney stones because: the stone injured
the urinary structures as it passes through them
41. The levator ani muscle plays a major role in constriction of the external
sphincter. True
42. The relay station in the brain that plays a major role in regulating
micturition is: pontine micturition center
43. When the bladder is empty, the detrusor muscle relaxes, and the internal
and external sphincters constrict. True
44. The location of the internal sphincter is under the urogenital
diaphragm. False, its located in the bladder
45. Which of the following actions will relax the detrusor muscle of the bladder?
Activation of the beta-2 receptors by the sympathetic nervous system
46. Stress incontinence- leaking of urine with activity
47. Urge incontinence- leakage of urine with sensation of need to urinate
48. Neurogenic incontinence- unimpeded urine leakage
49. Overflow incontinence- leakage of urine is associated with urgency,
frequency, dribbling and hesitancy
50. Involuntary loss of urine caused by dementia or immobility is known as:
functional incontinence
51. The pathophysiology of neurogenic bladder is: lesions alter nervous
system impulses that innervate the detrusor muscle to decrease
bladder compliance and decreased sphincter tone
52. Which of the following is considered be a transient cause of urinary
incontinence?
Urinary tract infection
ANSWERS
1. One of the first pathophysiological responses to the decreased GFR in acute
renal failure is: activation of the RAA system
2. A pre-renal cause of acute renal failure is: hypotension
3. Pre-renal is the most common cause of acute renal failure. True
4. One of the major markers for glomerular filtration rate is creatinine. True
5. Which of the following is true regarding creatinine? Creatinine gets
freely filtered from the glomerulus
6. Which of the following is the best indicator of a good prognosis for
recovery from acute renal failure? Kidney responds to Lasix
7. In post-renal failure, the damage occurs in the collecting duct. True
8. In intrinsic renal failure, sodium and water excretion is increased which
leads to a dilute urine. True
9. One of the issues that requires management of a patient with acute
renal failure is hypokalemia false, hyperkalemia needs to be
managed
10. Which of the following can help to prevent a UTI? Increased water
consumption
11. A symptom of a lower urinary tract infection includes: urgency
12. Women are at a higher risk for the development of a UTI because of
having a shorter urethra. True
13. Which of the following is a risk factor for the development of a urinary
tract infection (UTI)? Pregnancy
14. Which of the following is true regarding a complicated urinary tract
infection? Can be caused by a structural urinary tract disorder
15. Upon examination of a urinalysis, the NP can highly suspect that the
causative bacteria are gram negative because of the presence of: nitrites
16. The urinalysis of a patient with a complicated UTI will show WBCs and
casts. True
17. A common organism that causes a urinary tract infection include:
staphylococcus saprophyticus
18. The NP would know that the patient most likely has an uncomplicated UTI
because: the UTI responds well to a short course of antibiotic therapy
19. The patient most often develops symptoms of BPH when: the
prostatic urethra becomes obstructed
20. There is a significant risk for men with benign prostatic hyperplasia
(BPH) to develop cellular mutations that lead to prostate cancer. False
21. The peripheral zone of the prostate is the largest zone.true
22. The purpose of straining in BPH is to overcome the obstruction
encountered during urination. True
,23. On a digital rectal exam to assess the quality of the prostate, the NP would
be concerned with which of the following findings? a hard nodule
24. Irritative BPH- nocturia, urinary frequency, urgency that results
from bladder hypertrophy and dysfunction.
25. Obstructive BPH- Incomplete emptying, postvoid dribbling
26. The location of the characteristic hyperplastic nodules of BPH is:
periurethral zone
27. Men who have BPH are prone to developing a UTI because: stagnated
urine in the bladder promotes bacterial growth
28. The prostate specific antigen (PSA) helps to liquefy semen post-ejaculation.
True
, 29. The underlying cause of BPH is that normal prostate cells respond to
increases in dihydrotestosterone that causes them to live longer and
multiply. True
30. The action of a 5-Alpha-reductase inhibitor causes: shrinkage of the
prostate gland
31. Renal calculi are typically confined to the bladder. False
32. The gold standard for diagnosing a renal stone is a urinalysis. False, CT
scan
33. The most common type of stone is: calcium stone
34. Renal stones are formed when calcium and oxalate in the urine combine.
True
35. The type of stone that forms due to a urinary tract infection is: struvite
stone
36. Lithotripsy is an invasive procedure used to break up the stone. false
37. Renal colic is caused by the passing of the stone through the ureter. True
38. The most common stone found in the patient with gout is: uric acid stone
39. At least half of individuals with renal stones will have a reoccurrence
within 10 years of the prior stone. True
40. Hematuria can be seen with kidney stones because: the stone injured
the urinary structures as it passes through them
41. The levator ani muscle plays a major role in constriction of the external
sphincter. True
42. The relay station in the brain that plays a major role in regulating
micturition is: pontine micturition center
43. When the bladder is empty, the detrusor muscle relaxes, and the internal
and external sphincters constrict. True
44. The location of the internal sphincter is under the urogenital
diaphragm. False, its located in the bladder
45. Which of the following actions will relax the detrusor muscle of the bladder?
Activation of the beta-2 receptors by the sympathetic nervous system
46. Stress incontinence- leaking of urine with activity
47. Urge incontinence- leakage of urine with sensation of need to urinate
48. Neurogenic incontinence- unimpeded urine leakage
49. Overflow incontinence- leakage of urine is associated with urgency,
frequency, dribbling and hesitancy
50. Involuntary loss of urine caused by dementia or immobility is known as:
functional incontinence
51. The pathophysiology of neurogenic bladder is: lesions alter nervous
system impulses that innervate the detrusor muscle to decrease
bladder compliance and decreased sphincter tone
52. Which of the following is considered be a transient cause of urinary
incontinence?
Urinary tract infection
