Complete Exam Questions with 100% Verified
Correct Answers and Rationales | Latest Update
2026/2027 - Edition | Chamberlain || Graded A+
Question 1
The RN teaches a patient newly diagnosed with DM1 about storing Humulin N insulin.
Which statement indicates to the RN that the patient understood the discharge teaching?
A. "I would keep the insulin in the cabinet during the day only."
B. "I know I have to keep my insulin in the refrigerator at all times."
C. "I can store the open insulin bottles in the kitchen cabinet for 1 month."
D. "The best place for my insulin is on the windowsill, but in the cupboard is just as good."
Answer: C
Rationale: An insulin vial in current use can be kept at room temperature for 1 month
without significant loss of activity. Direct sunlight and heat must be avoided. Therefore,
options A, B, and D are incorrect.
Question 2
The RN is caring for a patient scheduled for a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. The
preoperative teaching instructions would include which statement?
A. "Your hair will need to be shaved."
B. "You will receive spinal anesthesia."
C. "You will need to ambulate after surgery."
D. "Brushing your teeth needs to be avoided for at least 2 weeks post-op."
Answer: D
Rationale: A transsphenoidal hypophysectomy is a surgical approach that uses the nasal
sinuses and nose for access to the pituitary gland. Based on the location of the surgical
procedure, spinal anesthesia would not be used. In addition, the hair would not be shaved.
Although ambulating is important, specific to this procedure is avoiding brushing the teeth
to prevent disruption of the surgical site.
Question 3
During a routine prenatal visit, a patient complains of easily bleeding gums when brushing.
The RN does an assessment and teaches the patient about proper nutrition to minimize this
problem. Which patient statement indicates an understanding?
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,A. "I will drink 8 oz of water with each meal."
B. "I will eat 3 servings of cracked wheat bread each day."
C. "I will eat 2 saltine crackers before I get up each morning."
D. "I will eat fresh fruits and vegetables for snacks and for dessert each day."
Answer: D
Rationale: Fresh fruits and vegetables provide vitamins and minerals needed for healthy
gums. Drinking water with meals has no direct effect on gums. Cracked wheat bread may
abrade the tender gums. Eating saltine crackers can also abrade the tender gums.
Question 4
A 6-year-old child was just diagnosed with Hodgkin's disease and chemotherapy is planned
to begin immediately. The parent asks the RN why XDR was not ordered as part of
treatment. The RN should make which response?
A. "It's very costly and chemotherapy works just as well."
B. "I'm not sure. I'll discuss it with the HCP."
C. "Sometimes age has to do with the decision for XDR."
D. "The HCP would prefer that you discuss the treatment options with the oncologist."
Answer: C
Rationale: Radiation therapy is usually delayed, whenever possible, until a child is 8 years
old to prevent retardation of bone growth and soft tissue development. Options A, B, and D
are inappropriate responses to the parent and place the parent's question on hold.
Question 5
The RN is doing an initial assessment on a newborn infant. When assessing the infant's
head, the RN notes that the ears are low-set. Which RN action is most appropriate?
A. Document the findings.
B. Arrange for a hearing test.
C. Notify the pediatrician.
D. Cover the ears with gauze pads.
Answer: C
Rationale: Low or oddly placed ears are associated with various congenital defects and
need to be reported immediately. Although the findings need to be documented, the most
appropriate action would be to notify the pediatrician. Options B and D are inaccurate and
inappropriate nursing actions.
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,Question 6
What PaO2 value indicates respiratory failure in adults?
A. PaO2 < 60 mmHg
B. PaO2 < 50 mmHg
C. PaO2 < 70 mmHg
D. PaO2 < 40 mmHg
Answer: A
Rationale: Respiratory failure in adults is defined as a PaO2 less than 60 mmHg with a
PaCO2 greater than 50 mmHg and pH less than 7.35.
Question 7
What blood value indicates hypercapnia?
A. PaCO2 > 45 mmHg
B. PaCO2 > 35 mmHg
C. PaCO2 > 50 mmHg
D. PaCO2 > 40 mmHg
Answer: A
Rationale: Hypercapnia is defined as an elevated PaCO2 level greater than 45 mmHg.
Question 8
What condition occurs when the PaO2 is < 60 mmHg (acute hypoxemia), the CO2 tension
rises > 50 mmHg (acute hypercarbia, hypercapnia), and the pH drops < 7.35, or both?
A. Acute respiratory distress syndrome
B. Acute respiratory failure
C. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
D. Pulmonary embolism
Answer: B
Rationale: Acute respiratory failure is characterized by acute hypoxemia (PaO2 < 60
mmHg), acute hypercarbia (PaCO2 > 50 mmHg), and acidemia (pH < 7.35).
Question 9
What are the signs/symptoms of respiratory failure in adults? (Select all that apply)
A. Dyspnea and shortness of breath
B. Tachypnea
C. Intercostal and sternal retractions
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, D. Cyanosis
E. Tachycardia
F. Cough that produces sputum
G. Fatigue
H. Fever
I. Crackles and wheezes
J. Chest pain (especially when trying to deep breathe)
K. Hypotension
L. Confusion
M. Agitation and restlessness
Answer: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, J, K, L, M
Rationale: All of these are signs and symptoms of respiratory failure in adults.
Question 10
What are the common causes of respiratory failure in patients?
A. CHD RDS
B. Infection, sepsis
C. NM diseases
D. Trauma, burns
E. Aspiration
F. FVO and dehydration
G. Anesthesia and narcotic OD
H. Structural anomalies resulting in airway obstruction
Answer: A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H
Rationale: All of these are common causes of respiratory failure.
Question 11
What percentage of O2 should a child in severe respiratory distress receive?
A. 40% O2
B. 60% O2
C. 80% O2
D. 100% O2
Answer: D
Rationale: A child in severe respiratory distress should receive 100% oxygen.
Question 12
What is shock?
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